無料CompTIA CS0-003テスト練習問題試験問題集
試験準備には欠かさない！トップクラスのCompTIA CS0-003試験最新版アプリ学習ガイドで練習
質問 # 73
A zero-day command injection vulnerability was published. A security administrator is analyzing the following logs for evidence of adversaries attempting to exploit the vulnerability:
Which of the following log entries provides evidence of the attempted exploit?
- A. Log entry 1
- B. Log entry 3
- C. Log entry 4
- D. Log entry 2
正解：C
解説：
Log entry 4 shows an attempt to exploit the zero-day command injection vulnerability by appending a malicious command (;cat /etc/passwd) to the end of a legitimate request (/cgi-bin/index.cgi?name=John). This command would try to read the contents of the /etc/passwd file, which contains user account information, and could lead to further compromise of the system. The other log entries do not show any signs of command injection, as they do not contain any special characters or commands that could alter the intended behavior of the application. Official References:
* https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/command-injection/
* https://www.zerodayinitiative.com/advisories/published/
質問 # 74
Which of the following risk management principles is accomplished by purchasing cyber insurance?
- A. Avoid
- B. Mitigate
- C. Transfer
- D. Accept
正解：C
解説：
Transfer is the risk management principle that is accomplished by purchasing cyber insurance. Transfer is a strategy that involves shifting the risk or its consequences to another party, such as an insurance company, a vendor, or a partner. Transfer does not eliminate the risk, but it reduces the potential impact or liability of the risk for the original party. Cyber insurance is a type of insurance that covers the losses and damages resulting from cyberattacks, such as data breaches, ransomware, denial-of-service attacks, or network disruptions. Cyber insurance can help transfer the risk of cyber incidents by providing financial compensation, legal assistance, or recovery services to the insured party. Official References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
質問 # 75
Following an incident, a security analyst needs to create a script for downloading the configuration of all assets from the cloud tenancy. Which of the following authentication methods should the analyst use?
- A. PAM
- B. Key pair
- C. User and password
- D. MFA
正解：B
解説：
Key pair authentication is a method of using a public and private key to securely access cloud resources, such as downloading the configuration of assets from a cloud tenancy. Key pair authentication is more secure than user and password or PAM, and does not require an additional factor like MFA.
References: Authentication Methods - Configuring Tenant-Wide Settings in Azure ..., Cloud Foundation - Oracle Help Center
質問 # 76
A cybersecurity analyst notices unusual network scanning activity coming from a country that the company does not do business with. Which of the following is the best mitigation technique?
- A. Block the specific IP address of the scans at the network firewall
- B. Geoblock the offending source country
- C. Perform a historical trend analysis and look for similar scanning activity.
- D. Block the IP range of the scans at the network firewall.
正解：B
解説：
Geoblocking is the best mitigation technique for unusual network scanning activity coming from a country that the company does not do business with, as it can prevent any potential attacks or data breaches from that country. Geoblocking is the practice of restricting access to websites or services based on geographic location, usually by blocking IP addresses associated with a certain country or region. Geoblocking can help reduce the overall attack surface and protect against malicious actors who may be trying to exploit vulnerabilities or steal information. The other options are not as effective as geoblocking, as they may not block all the possible sources of the scanning activity, or they may not address the root cause of the problem. Official References:
https://www.blumira.com/geoblocking/
https://www.avg.com/en/signal/geo-blocking
質問 # 77
Which of the following risk management principles is accomplished by purchasing cyber insurance?
- A. Avoid
- B. Mitigate
- C. Transfer
- D. Accept
正解：C
解説：
Transfer is the risk management principle that is accomplished by purchasing cyber insurance. Transfer is a strategy that involves shifting the risk or its consequences to another party, such as an insurance company, a vendor, or a partner. Transfer does not eliminate the risk, but it reduces the potential impact or liability of the risk for the original party. Cyber insurance is a type of insurance that covers the losses and damages resulting from cyberattacks, such as data breaches, ransomware, denial-of-service attacks, or network disruptions. Cyber insurance can help transfer the risk of cyber incidents by providing financial compensation, legal assistance, or recovery services to the insured party. Official Reference:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
質問 # 78
An analyst is reviewing a vulnerability report for a server environment with the following entries:
Which of the following systems should be prioritized for patching first?
- A. 54.74.110.26
- B. 10.101.27.98
- C. 54.74.110.228
- D. 54.73.225.17
正解：C
解説：
Explanation
The system that should be prioritized for patching first is 54.74.110.228, as it has the highest number and severity of vulnerabilities among the four systems listed in the vulnerability report. According to the report, this system has 12 vulnerabilities, with 8 critical, 3 high, and 1 medium severity ratings. The critical vulnerabilities include CVE-2019-0708 (BlueKeep), CVE-2019-1182 (DejaBlue), CVE-2017-0144 (EternalBlue), and CVE-2017-0145 (EternalRomance), which are all remote code execution vulnerabilities that can allow an attacker to compromise the system without any user interaction or authentication. These vulnerabilities pose a high risk to the system and should be patched as soon as possible.
質問 # 79
An analyst is reviewing a vulnerability report and must make recommendations to the executive team. The analyst finds that most systems can be upgraded with a reboot resulting in a single downtime window.
However, two of the critical systems cannot be upgraded due to a vendor appliance that the company does not have access to. Which of the following inhibitors to remediation do these systems and associated vulnerabilities best represent?
- A. Lack of maintenance windows
- B. Legacy systems
- C. Unsupported operating systems
- D. Proprietary systems
正解：D
解説：
Explanation
Proprietary systems are systems that are owned and controlled by a specific vendor or manufacturer, and that use proprietary standards or protocols that are not compatible with other systems. Proprietary systems can pose a challenge for vulnerability management, as they may not allow users to access or modify their configuration, update their software, or patch their vulnerabilities. In this case, two of the critical systems cannot be upgraded due to a vendor appliance that the company does not have access to. This indicates that these systems and associated vulnerabilities are examples of proprietary systems as inhibitors to remediation
質問 # 80
The Chief Executive Officer of an organization recently heard that exploitation of new attacks in the industry was happening approximately 45 days after a patch was released. Which of the following would best protect this organization?
- A. A mean time to detect of 45 days
- B. Third-party application testing
- C. A mean time to respond of 15 days
- D. A mean time to remediate of 30 days
正解：D
解説：
A mean time to remediate (MTTR) is a metric that measures how long it takes to fix a vulnerability after it is discovered. A MTTR of 30 days would best protect the organization from the new attacks that are exploited 45 days after a patch is released, as it would ensure that the vulnerabilities are fixed before they are exploited
質問 # 81
An organization would like to ensure its cloud infrastructure has a hardened configuration. A requirement is to create a server image that can be deployed with a secure template. Which of the following is the best resource to ensure secure configuration?
- A. CIS Benchmarks
- B. OWASP Top Ten
- C. ISO 27001
- D. PCI DSS
正解：A
解説：
The best resource to ensure secure configuration of cloud infrastructure is A. CIS Benchmarks. CIS Benchmarks are a set of prescriptive configuration recommendations for various technologies, including cloud providers, operating systems, network devices, and server software. They are developed by a global community of cybersecurity experts and help organizations protect their systems against threats more confidently1 PCI DSS, OWASP Top Ten, and ISO 27001 are also important standards for information security, but they are not focused on providing specific guidance for hardening cloud infrastructure. PCI DSS is a compliance scheme for payment card transactions, OWASP Top Ten is a list of common web application security risks, and ISO 27001 is a framework for establishing and maintaining an information security management system. These standards may have some relevance for cloud security, but they are not as comprehensive and detailed as CIS Benchmarks
質問 # 82
A security analyst performs various types of vulnerability scans. Review the vulnerability scan results to determine the type of scan that was executed and if a false positive occurred for each device.
Instructions:
Select the Results Generated drop-down option to determine if the results were generated from a credentialed scan, non-credentialed scan, or a compliance scan.
For ONLY the credentialed and non-credentialed scans, evaluate the results for false positives and check the findings that display false positives. NOTE: If you would like to uncheck an option that is currently selected, click on the option a second time.
Lastly, based on the vulnerability scan results, identify the type of Server by dragging the Server to the results.
The Linux Web Server, File-Print Server and Directory Server are draggable.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset All button.
When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.
正解：
解説：
質問 # 83
A company is in the process of implementing a vulnerability management program, and there are concerns about granting the security team access to sensitive data. Which of the following scanning methods can be implemented to reduce the access to systems while providing the most accurate vulnerability scan results?
- A. Agent-based scanning
- B. Dynamic scanning
- C. Credentialed network scanning
- D. Passive scanning
正解：A
解説：
Explanation
Agent-based scanning is a method that involves installing software agents on the target systems or networks that can perform local scans and report the results to a central server or console. Agent-based scanning can reduce the access to systems, as the agents do not require any credentials or permissions to scan the local system or network. Agent-based scanning can also provide the most accurate vulnerability scan results, as the agents can scan continuously or on-demand, regardless of the system or network status or location.
質問 # 84
A security analyst discovers an LFI vulnerability that can be exploited to extract credentials from the underlying host. Which of the following patterns can the security analyst use to search the web server logs for evidence of exploitation of that particular vulnerability?
- A. /etc/ shadow
- B. curl localhost
- C. ; printenv
- D. cat /proc/self/
正解：A
解説：
Explanation
/etc/shadow is the pattern that the security analyst can use to search the web server logs for evidence of exploitation of the LFI vulnerability that can be exploited to extract credentials from the underlying host. LFI stands for Local File Inclusion, which is a vulnerability that allows an attacker to include local files on the web server into the output of a web application. LFI can be exploited to extract sensitive information from the web server, such as configuration files, passwords, or source code. The /etc/shadow file is a file that stores the encrypted passwords of all users on a Linux system. If an attacker can exploit the LFI vulnerability to include this file into the web application output, they can obtain the credentials of the users on the web server.
Therefore, the security analyst can look for /etc/shadow in the request line of the web server logs to see if any attacker has attempted or succeeded in exploiting the LFI vulnerability. Official References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
質問 # 85
An incident response team found IoCs in a critical server. The team needs to isolate and collect technical evidence for further investigation. Which of the following pieces of data should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server?
- A. Primary boot partition
- B. Routing table
- C. Malicious tiles
- D. Static IP address
- E. Hard disk
正解：E
解説：
The hard disk is the piece of data that should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server. The hard disk contains all the files and data stored on the server, which may include evidence of malicious activity, such as malware installation, data exfiltration, or configuration changes. The hard disk should be collected using proper forensic techniques, such as creating an image or a copy of the disk and maintaining its integrity using hashing algorithms.
質問 # 86
A company's security team is updating a section of the reporting policy that pertains to inappropriate use of resources (e.g., an employee who installs cryptominers on workstations in the office). Besides the security team, which
of the following groups should the issue be escalated to first in order to comply with industry best practices?
- A. Legal department
- B. Board member
- C. Law enforcement
- D. Help desk
正解：A
解説：
The correct answer is C. Legal department.
According to the CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification exam objectives, one of the tasks for a security analyst is to "report and escalate security incidents to appropriate stakeholders and authorities" 1. This includes reporting any inappropriate use of resources, such as installing cryptominers on workstations, which may violate the company's policies and cause financial and reputational damage. The legal department is the most appropriate group to escalate this issue to first, as they can advise on the legal implications and actions that can be taken against the employee. The legal department can also coordinate with other groups, such as law enforcement, help desk, or board members, as needed. The other options are not the best choices to escalate the issue to first, as they may not have the authority or expertise to handle the situation properly.
質問 # 87
You are a penetration tester who is reviewing the system hardening guidelines for a company. Hardening guidelines indicate the following.
There must be one primary server or service per device.
Only default port should be used
Non- secure protocols should be disabled.
The corporate internet presence should be placed in a protected subnet
Instructions :
Using the available tools, discover devices on the corporate network and the services running on these devices.
You must determine
ip address of each device
The primary server or service each device
The protocols that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines
正解：
解説：
see the answer below in explanation:
Explanation:
Answer below images
A computer screen with white text Description automatically generated
質問 # 88
The Chief Information Security Officer is directing a new program to reduce attack surface risks and threats as part of a zero trust approach. The IT security team is required to come up with priorities for the program.
Which of the following is the best priority based on common attack frameworks?
- A. Employ a network-based IDS
- B. Reduce the administrator and privileged access accounts
- C. Conduct thorough incident response
- D. Enable SSO to enterprise applications
正解：B
解説：
Explanation
The best priority based on common attack frameworks for a new program to reduce attack surface risks and threats as part of a zero trust approach is to reduce the administrator and privileged access accounts.
Administrator and privileged access accounts are accounts that have elevated permissions or capabilities to perform sensitive or critical tasks on systems or networks, such as installing software, changing configurations, accessing data, or granting access. Reducing the administrator and privileged access accounts can help minimize the attack surface, as it can limit the number of potential targets or entry points for attackers, as well as reduce the impact or damage of an attack if an account is compromised.
質問 # 89
An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:
Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?
- A. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header.
- B. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains.
- C. Set an Http Only flag to force communication by HTTPS.
- D. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header.
正解：B
解説：
The output shows that the web application has a cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) header that allows any origin to access its resources. This is a security misconfiguration that could allow malicious websites to make requests to the web application on behalf of the user and access sensitive data or perform unauthorized actions.
The tuning recommendation is to configure the Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to only allow authorized domains that need to access the web application's resources. This would prevent unauthorized cross-origin requests and reduce the risk of cross-site request forgery (CSRF) attacks.
質問 # 90
A security analyst performs a vulnerability scan. Based on the metrics from the scan results, the analyst must prioritize which hosts to patch. The analyst runs the tool and receives the following output:
Which of the following hosts should be patched first, based on the metrics?
- A. host02
- B. host04
- C. host01
- D. host03
正解：D
解説：
Host03 should be patched first, based on the metrics, as it has the highest risk score and the highest number of critical vulnerabilities. The risk score is calculated by multiplying the CVSS score by the exposure factor, which is the percentage of systems that are vulnerable to the exploit. Host03 has a risk score of 10 x 0.9 = 9, which is higher than any other host. Host03 also has 5 critical vulnerabilities, which are the most severe and urgent to fix, as they can allow remote code execution, privilege escalation, or data loss. The other hosts have lower risk scores and lower numbers of critical vulnerabilities, so they can be patched later.
質問 # 91
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CompTIA CS0-003 認定試験の出題範囲：
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今すぐCS0-003問題を使おうCS0-003問題集PDF：https://www.passtest.jp/CompTIA/CS0-003-shiken.html
問題集練習試験問題学習ガイドはCS0-003試験にはこれ：https://drive.google.com/open?id=18Ca0glAGXlaxKA5kEPS4otTQqz9jdBKC