試験合格保証付きのThird Party Risk Management CTPRP試験問題集
Shared Assessments CTPRP日常練習試験は2024年最新のに更新された125問あります
質問 # 71
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the accountabilities in a three lines of defense model?
- A. The third line of defense is an assurance function that has independence from the business unit
- B. The second line of defense is management within the business unit
- C. The third line of defense must be limited to an external assessment firm
- D. The first line of defense is the risk or compliance team that provides an oversight or governance function
正解：A
解説：
The three lines of defense model is a way of explaining the relationship between functions and roles of risk management and control in an organization. It involves the first line of defense (owning and managing risks), the second line of defense (overseeing or specialising in risk), and the third line of defense (providing independent assurance)1. The third line of defense is typically the internal audit function, which provides objective and independent assurance to the governing body, management, regulators, and external auditors that the control culture across the organization is effective in its design and operation2. The third line of defense must have independence from the business unit, meaning that it is not involved in the execution of business activities or the design and implementation of controls, and that it reports to the highest level of governance, such as the board or the audit committee3. The third line of defense is not limited to an external assessment firm, although external assurance providers may complement or supplement the work of the internal audit function2. References:
* 1: Internal audit: three lines of defence model explained | ICAS
* 2: Modernizing The Three Lines of Defense Model | Deloitte US
* 3: THE IIA S THREE LINES MODEL
質問 # 72
Which factor is less important when reviewing application risk for application service providers?
- A. Remote connectivity
- B. APl integration
- C. The functionality and type of data the application processes
- D. The number of software releases
正解：D
解説：
When reviewing application risk for application service providers, the most important factors are the functionality and type of data the application processes, the remote connectivity options, and the APl integration methods. These factors determine the level of exposure, sensitivity, and complexity of the application, and thus the potential impact and likelihood of a security breach or a compliance violation. The number of software releases is less important, as it does not directly affect the application's security or functionality. However, it may indicate the maturity and quality of the software development process, which is another aspect of application risk assessment. References:
* Application Security Risk: Assessment and Modeling, ISACA Journal, Volume 2, 2016
質問 # 73
A contract clause that enables each party to share the amount of information security risk is known as:
- A. Cyber Insurance
- B. Force majeure
- C. Limitation of liability
- D. Mutual indemnification
正解：D
解説：
Indemnification is a contractual obligation by which one party agrees to compensate another party for any losses or damages that may arise from a specified event or circumstance. Mutual indemnification means that both parties agree to indemnify each other for certain losses or damages, such as those caused by a breach of contract, negligence, or violation of law. Mutual indemnification can enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, as it can provide a mechanism for allocating the responsibility and liability for any security incidents or breaches that may affect either party or their customers. Mutual indemnification can also incentivize each party to maintain adequate security controls and practices, as well as to cooperate and communicate effectively in the event of a security incident or breach.
The other options are not contract clauses that enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, because:
* A. Limitation of liability is a contract clause that limits the amount or type of damages that one party can claim from another party in the event of a breach of contract or other legal action. Limitation of liability does not enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, as it can reduce or cap the liability of one party, but not necessarily distribute or balance the risk between both parties.
* B. Cyber insurance is a type of insurance policy that covers the costs and losses resulting from cyberattacks, data breaches, or other cyber incidents. Cyber insurance does not enable each party to
* share the amount of information security risk, as it can transfer or mitigate the risk to a third-party insurer, but not necessarily allocate or share the risk between both parties.
* C. Force majeure is a contract clause that excuses one or both parties from performing their contractual obligations in the event of an unforeseen or unavoidable event or circumstance that is beyond their control, such as a natural disaster, war, or pandemic. Force majeure does not enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, as it can suspend or terminate the contract in the event of a force majeure event, but not necessarily distribute or balance the risk between both parties.
References:
* Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, page 62, section 5.2.2: Contractual Terms
* Third-Party Risk Management: Vendor Contract Terms and Conditions, section: Indemnification
* Cybersecurity risks from third party vendors: PwC, section: Contractual terms and conditions
* [Third-Party Risk Management: The 3rd Party Ecosystem: How to Manage the Risk While Keeping the Benefit], section: Contractual Terms and Conditions
質問 # 74
During the contract negotiation process for a new vendor, the vendor states they have legal obligations to retain data for tax purposes. However, your company policy requires data return or destruction at contract termination. Which statement provides the BEST approach to address this conflict?
- A. Change the risk rating of the vendor to reflect a higher risk tier
- B. Insist the vendor adheres to the policy and contract provisions without exception
- C. Conduct an assessment of the vendor's data governance and records management program
- D. Determine if a policy exception and approval is required, and require that data safeguarding obligations continue after termination
正解：D
解説：
The best approach to address the conflict between the vendor's legal obligations to retain data for tax purposes and the company's policy to require data return or destruction at contract termination is A. Determine if a policy exception and approval is required, and require that data safeguarding obligations continue after termination. This approach recognizes that the vendor may have valid reasons to retain some data for a certain period of time, and that the company may have flexibility to grant exceptions to its policy under certain circumstances. However, this approach also ensures that the company maintains oversight and control over the data that the vendor retains, and that the vendor continues to comply with the data safeguarding obligations, such as encryption, access control, audit, and breach notification, until the data is returned or destroyed. This approach balances the interests and risks of both parties, and minimizes the potential for data breaches, misuse, or loss.
The other approaches are not the best ways to address the conflict, as they may create more problems or risks for either party. B. Change the risk rating of the vendor to reflect a higher risk tier. This approach does not resolve the conflict, but rather shifts the responsibility to the company to manage the increased risk of the vendor retaining the data. Changing the risk rating may also affect the contract terms, such as pricing, service level agreements, or liability clauses, and may require renegotiation or termination of the contract. C. Insist the vendor adheres to the policy and contract provisions without exception. This approach is too rigid and may not be feasible or reasonable for the vendor, especially if they have legal obligations to retain the data. This approach may also damage the relationship and trust between the parties, and may lead to disputes or litigation. D. Conduct an assessment of the vendor's data governance and records management program. This approach is too time-consuming and costly, and may not be necessary or relevant for the conflict. Conducting an assessment may provide some assurance about the vendor's data practices, but it does not address the underlying issue of the conflicting data retention requirements. Moreover, conducting an assessment may not be possible or appropriate during the contract negotiation process, as it may require access to the vendor's systems, data, or personnel. References:
* : Best Practices for Data Destruction - ed
* : CHALLENGES AND RISKS INVOLVED WITH DATA RETENTION - DataOlogie
* : Third-Party Risk Management: Final Interagency Guidance
* : Ensuring Data Protection for Third Parties: Best Practices | UpGuard Blog
質問 # 75
Once a vendor questionnaire is received from a vendor what is the MOST important next step when evaluating the responses?
- A. Document your analysis and provide confirmation to the business unit regarding receipt of the questionnaire
- B. Update the vender risk registry and vendor inventory with the results in order to complete the assessment
- C. Calculate the total number of findings to rate the effectiveness of the vendor response
- D. Analyze the responses to identify adverse or high priority responses to prioritize controls that should be tested
正解：D
解説：
The most important next step after receiving a vendor questionnaire is to analyze the responses and identify any gaps, issues, or risks that may pose a threat to the organization or its customers. This analysis should be based on the inherent risk profile of the vendor, the criticality of the service or product they provide, and the applicable regulatory and contractual requirements. The analysis should also highlight any adverse or high priority responses that indicate a lack of adequate controls, policies, or procedures on the vendor's part. These responses should be prioritized for further validation, testing, or remediation. The analysis should also document any assumptions, limitations, or dependencies that may affect the accuracy or completeness of the vendor's responses. References:
* Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, Section 4.2.2, page 43
* Third-Party Risk Management: Managing Risk, Section "Assessing and monitoring third-party risk"
* What Is Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM)? 2024 Guide, Section "Third-Party Risk Management Process"
質問 # 76
Which statement provides the BEST description of inherent risk?
- A. Inherent risk is the level of risk that exists with all of the necessary controls in place
- B. Inherent risk is the level of risk triggered by outsourcing & product or service
- C. Inherent risk is the amount of risk an organization can accept based on their risk tolerance
- D. inherent risk is the amount of risk an organization can incur when there is an absence of controls
正解：D
解説：
Inherent risk refers to the level of risk that exists in the absence of any controls or mitigation measures. It represents the natural exposure to risk in operations, transactions, or activities without considering the effectiveness of any risk management practices. In the context of Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM), inherent risk assesses the potential for loss or adverse outcomes associated with a third-party relationship before any controls or risk treatments are applied. Understanding inherent risk is crucial for organizations to identify where controls are necessary and to prioritize risk management efforts based on the potential impact and likelihood of different risks. This concept is foundational in risk management frameworks and is used to guide the development and implementation of controls to reduce risk to an acceptable level, aligned with the organization's risk appetite and tolerance.
References:
* Risk management standards such as ISO 31000 (Risk Management - Guidelines) provide a framework for assessing and managing inherent risks, emphasizing the importance of understanding the baseline level of risk in decision-making processes.
* The "Third-Party Risk Management Guide" by ISACA outlines best practices for assessing inherent risks in third-party relationships, highlighting the need to evaluate the nature and scope of third-party engagements to determine the baseline risk exposure.
質問 # 77
Which cloud deployment model is focused on the management of hardware equipment?
- A. Platform as a service
- B. Software as a service
- C. Function as a service
- D. Infrastructure as a service
正解：D
解説：
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a cloud deployment model that provides users with access to virtualized hardware resources, such as servers, storage, and network devices. Users can install and run their own operating systems and applications on the cloud infrastructure, and have full control over the configuration and management of the hardware equipment. IaaS is suitable for organizations that need high scalability, flexibility, and customization of their cloud environment. IaaS is different from other cloud deployment models, such as function as a service (FaaS), platform as a service (PaaS), and software as a service (SaaS), which provide users with higher-level services and abstract away the underlying hardware details. References:
* Cloud Infrastructure: 4 Key Components and Deployment Models
* Cloud Deployment Models - GeeksforGeeks
* On-Premises Cloud Deployment Model: Organization-Owned Hardware Explained
質問 # 78
When updating TPRM vendor classification requirements with a focus on availability, which risk rating factors provide the greatest impact to the analysis?
- A. impact on operations and end users; impact on revenue; impact on regulatory compliance
- B. Network connectivity; remote access to applications
- C. Type of data by classification; volume of records included in data processing
- D. Financial viability of the vendor; ability to meet performance metrics
正解：A
解説：
TPRM vendor classification is the process of categorizing vendors based on their criticality, risk level, and service type. Vendor classification helps to prioritize and allocate resources for vendor assessment, monitoring, and remediation. Vendor classification should be updated periodically to reflect changes in the business environment, vendor performance, and regulatory requirements.
When updating TPRM vendor classification requirements with a focus on availability, the risk rating factors that provide the greatest impact to the analysis are the impact on operations and end users, the impact on revenue, and the impact on regulatory compliance. This is because:
* Availability is the degree to which a system or service is accessible and functional when required by authorized users. Availability is a key component of information security and business continuity, as it ensures that the business can operate normally and deliver value to its customers and stakeholders.
* Impact on operations and end users measures the extent to which a vendor's service disruption or failure affects the business processes, functions, and activities that depend on the vendor's service. A high impact on operations and end users means that the vendor's service is essential for the business to perform its core functions and meet its objectives, and that any downtime or degradation of the service would cause significant operational delays, inefficiencies, or losses.
* Impact on revenue measures the extent to which a vendor's service disruption or failure affects the business's income, profitability, and market share. A high impact on revenue means that the vendor's service is directly or indirectly linked to the business's revenue generation, and that any downtime or degradation of the service would cause substantial financial losses, reduced customer satisfaction, or competitive disadvantage.
* Impact on regulatory compliance measures the extent to which a vendor's service disruption or failure affects the business's adherence to the laws, regulations, standards, and contractual obligations that govern its industry, sector, or jurisdiction. A high impact on regulatory compliance means that the vendor's service is subject to strict regulatory requirements, and that any downtime or degradation of the service would cause serious legal penalties, fines, sanctions, or reputational damage.
Therefore, these three factors are the most important to consider when updating TPRM vendor classification requirements with a focus on availability, as they reflect the potential consequences and risks of vendor unavailability for the business.
References:
* CTPRP Job Guide
* Criticality and Risk Rating Vendors 101
* The Third-Party Vendor Risk Management Lifecycle
* What Is Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM)? 2024 Guide
* Third-Party Risk Management and ISO Requirements for 2022
質問 # 79
Which action statement BEST describes an assessor calculating residual risk?
- A. The assessor recommends implementing continuous monitoring for the next 18 months
- B. The assessor adjusts the vendor risk rating prior to reporting the findings to the business unit
- C. The assessor adjusts the vendor risk rating based on changes to the risk level after analyzing the findings and mitigating controls
- D. The business unit closes out the finding prior to the assessor submitting the final report
正解：C
解説：
When calculating residual risk, the best practice for an assessor is to adjust the vendor risk rating based on the changes to the risk level after analyzing the findings and considering the effectiveness of mitigating controls.
Residual risk refers to the level of risk that remains after controls are applied to mitigate the initial (inherent) risk. By evaluating the findings from a third-party assessment and factoring in the mitigating controls implemented by the vendor, the assessor can more accurately determine the remaining risk level. This adjusted risk rating provides a more realistic view of the vendor's risk profile, aiding in informed decision-making regarding risk management and vendor oversight.
References:
* The concept of residual risk calculation is discussed in risk management frameworks such as ISO 31000 (Risk Management - Guidelines), which guides the assessment and treatment of risks.
* The "Third-Party Risk Management Guide" by ISACA outlines the process of assessing and managing risks associated with third parties, including the calculation of residual risk.
質問 # 80
Which of the following data safeguarding techniques provides the STRONGEST assurance that data does not identify an individual?
- A. Data encryption
- B. Data compression
- C. Data anonymization
- D. Data masking
正解：C
解説：
Data anonymization is the process of removing or altering any information that can be used to identify an individual from a data set. This technique provides the strongest assurance that data does not identify an individual, as it makes it impossible or extremely difficult to link the data back to the original source. Data anonymization can be achieved by various methods, such as generalization, suppression, perturbation, or pseudonymization12. Data anonymization is often used for privacy protection, compliance with data protection regulations, and data sharing purposes3. References:
* 1: Data Security: Definition, Importance, and Types | Fortinet
* 2: Data Security Best Practices: Top 10 Data Protection Methods - Ekran System
* 3: Data anonymization - Wikipedia
質問 # 81
Which statement is FALSE regarding analyzing results from a vendor risk assessment?
- A. The frequency for conducting a vendor reassessment is defined by regulatory obligations
- B. Findings from a vendor risk assessment may be defined at the entity level, and are based o na Specific topic or control
- C. Identifying findings from a vendor risk assessment can occur at any stage in the contract lifecycle
- D. Risk assessment findings identified by controls testing or validation should map back to the information gathering questionnaire and agreed upon framework
正解：A
解説：
The frequency for conducting a vendor reassessment is not necessarily defined by regulatory obligations, but rather by the risk rating and criticality of the vendor, as well as the changes in the vendor's environment, performance, and controls. Regulatory obligations may provide some guidance or minimum requirements for vendor reassessment, but they are not the sole determinant of the reassessment frequency. According to the Shared Assessments Program Tools User Guide, "The frequency of reassessment should be based on the risk rating and criticality of the vendor, as well as any changes in the vendor's environment, performance, or controls. Regulatory guidance may also influence the frequency of reassessment."1 Similarly, the CTPRP Study Guide states, "The frequency of reassessment should be based on the risk rating and criticality of the vendor, as well as any changes in the vendor's environment, performance, or controls. Regulatory guidance may also influence the frequency of reassessment."2 References:
* Shared Assessments Program Tools User Guide
* CTPRP Study Guide
質問 # 82
Which statement is TRUE regarding a vendor's approach to Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) programs?
- A. ESG expectations are driven by a company's executive team for internal commitments end not external entities
- B. ESG requirements and programs may be directed by regulatory obligations or in response to company commitments
- C. ESG obligations only apply to a company with publicly traded stocks
- D. ESG commitments can only be measured qualitatively so it cannot be included in vendor due diligence standards
正解：B
解説：
ESG programs are initiatives that aim to improve the environmental, social, and governance performance of a vendor or service provider. ESG programs may be driven by various factors, such as regulatory obligations, customer expectations, stakeholder pressure, industry standards, or company commitments. Therefore, statement B is true and the correct answer is B. Statement A is false because ESG expectations may come from external entities, such as regulators, investors, customers, or civil society. Statement C is false because ESG commitments can be measured both qualitatively and quantitatively, using indicators such as carbon emissions, diversity, ethics, or compliance. Statement D is false because ESG obligations may apply to any company, regardless of its size, ownership, or sector. References:
* Third-party risk management and the ESG agenda
* ESG third-party risk
* The Role of Third-Party Risk Management in ESG Compliance
質問 # 83
Which statement provides the BEST example of the purpose of scoping in third party assessments?
- A. Scoping is used to reduce the number of questions the vendor has to complete based on vendor
"classification - B. Scoping is the process an outsourcer uses to configure a third party assessment based on the risk the vendor presents to the organization
- C. Scoping is an assessment technique only used for high risk or critical vendors that require on-site assessments
- D. Scoping is used primarily to limit the inclusion of supply chain vendors in third party assessments
正解：B
解説：
Scoping is a critical step in third party assessments, as it determines the scope and depth of the assessment based on the inherent risk, impact, and complexity of the vendor relationship. Scoping helps to ensure that the assessment is relevant, efficient, and consistent with the outsourcer's risk appetite and objectives. Scoping also helps to avoid over or under assessing the vendor, which could result in unnecessary costs, delays, or gaps in risk management. Scoping is not a one-time activity, but rather an ongoing process that should be reviewed and updated throughout the vendor lifecycle. Scoping should be aligned with the outsourcer's third party risk management framework and policies, and follow the best practices and guidelines provided by the Shared Assessments Program and other industry standards. References:
* 1: THIRD PARTY RISK MANAGEMENT TOOLKIT - Shared Assessments, pages 4-6
* 2: How Dynamic Scoping Can Improve Vendor Risk Assessments - ProcessUnity
* 3: Inherent Risk Tiering for Third-Party Vendor Assessments - MindPoint Group
質問 # 84
Physical access procedures and activity logs should require all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. Record successful and unsuccessful attempts including investigation of unsuccessful access attempts
- B. Include a process to trigger review of the logs after security events
- C. Require multiple access controls for server rooms and data centers
- D. Require physical access logs to be retained indefinitely for audit purposes
正解：D
解説：
Physical access procedures and activity logs are important components of third-party risk management, as they help to ensure the security and integrity of the physical assets and data of the organization and its third parties.
However, requiring physical access logs to be retained indefinitely for audit purposes is not a best practice, as it may pose legal, regulatory, and operational challenges. According to the Supplemental Examination Procedures for Risk Management of Third-Party Relationships, physical access logs should be retained for a reasonable period of time, consistent with the organization's policies and procedures, and in compliance with applicable laws and regulations1. Retaining physical access logs indefinitely may increase the risk of unauthorized access, data breaches, privacy violations, and litigation2. Therefore, the statement B is the correct answer, as it is the only one that does not reflect a best practice for physical access procedures and activity logs.
References:
* 1: How to Write Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM) Policies and Procedures - SecurityScorecard Blog
* 2: Five Best Practices to Manage and Control Third-Party Risk - Broadcom Inc.
* 3: A checklist for third-party risk management platforms - Crowe LLP
* 4: Supplemental Examination Procedures for Risk Management of Third-Party Relationships
* 5: Third Party Risk Management: Why It's Important And What Features To Look For - Expert Insights
質問 # 85
Which factor is MOST important when scoping assessments of cloud-based third parties that access, process, and retain personal data?
- A. The geographic location of the vendor's outsourced datacenters since assessments are only required for international data transfers
- B. The identification of the type of cloud hosting deployment or service model in order to confirm responsibilities between the third party and the cloud hosting provider
- C. The contract terms for the configuration of the environment which may prevent conducting the assessment
- D. The definition of requirements for backup capabilities for power generation and redundancy in the resilience plan
正解：B
解説：
The most important factor when scoping assessments of cloud-based third parties that access, process, and retain personal data is to identify the type of cloud hosting deployment or service model. This is because different cloud models have different implications for the allocation of security responsibilities between the third party and the cloud hosting provider. For example, in a Software as a Service (SaaS) model, the cloud provider is responsible for most of the security controls, while in an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model, the third party is responsible for securing its own data and applications. Therefore, it is essential to understand the type of cloud model and the corresponding security roles and responsibilities before conducting an assessment. This will help to avoid gaps, overlaps, or conflicts in security controls and expectations.
References:
* Guidance on Cloud Security Assessment and Authorization - ITSP.50.105, Canadian Centre for Cyber Security, May 2020, Section 2.1.1
* The Importance of Properly Scoping Cloud Environments, PCI Security Standards Council and Cloud Security Alliance, August 2021
* Third party and cloud: Regulatory challenges, KPMG, 2022, Section 2.1
* Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, Shared Assessments, 2021, Section 4.2.2
質問 # 86
Which of the following actions is an early step when triggering an Information Security Incident Response Program?
- A. Requiring periodic changes to the vendor's contract for breach notification
- B. Implementing processes for emergency change control approvals
- C. Initiating an investigation of the unauthorized disclosure of data
- D. Assessing the vendor's Business Impact Analysis (BIA) for resuming operations
正解：C
解説：
According to the NIST Computer Security Incident Handling Guide1, one of the first steps in responding to an incident is to identify the scope, nature, and source of the incident. This involves gathering evidence, analyzing logs, interviewing witnesses, and performing forensic analysis. The goal is to determine the extent of the compromise, the type of attack, the identity or location of the attacker, and the potential impact on the organization and its stakeholders. This step is essential for containing the incident, mitigating the damage, and preventing further escalation or recurrence. References:
* NIST Computer Security Incident Handling Guide1, Section 3.2.2 Identification
* Cisco What Is an Incident Response Plan for IT?2, Section 2. Respond
* CrowdStrike Incident Response [Beginner's Guide]3, Section 3. Incident Response Steps
質問 # 87
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テストエンジン練習CTPRPテスト問題：https://www.passtest.jp/Shared-Assessments/CTPRP-shiken.html
有効問題を試そう！CTPRP実際の試験問題解答：https://drive.google.com/open?id=1jzbRzbDUcC_4NUpanhzK-eC3Zv_eJAp7