2025年01月 Shared Assessments CTPRP実際の問題とブレーン問題集
CTPRP合格させる問題集でShared Assessments24時間で試験合格できます
質問 # 23
Which statement is FALSE regarding the risk factors an organization may include when defining TPRM compliance requirements?
- A. Organizations include TPRM compliance requirements within vendor contracts, and periodically review and update mandatory contract provisions
- B. Organizations rely on regulatory mandates to define and structure TPRM compliance requirements
- C. Organizations incorporate the use of external standards and frameworks to align and map TPRM compliance requirements to industry practice
- D. Organizations define TPRM policies based on the company's risk appetite to shape requirements based on the services being outsourced
正解：B
解説：
TPRM compliance requirements are the rules and expectations that an organization must follow when engaging with third parties, such as vendors, suppliers, partners, or contractors. These requirements are derived from various sources, such as laws, regulations, standards, frameworks, contracts, policies, and best practices. However, relying solely on regulatory mandates to define and structure TPRM compliance requirements is a false statement, because123:
* Regulatory mandates are not the only source of TPRM compliance requirements. Organizations may also need to consider other factors, such as industry benchmarks, customer expectations, stakeholder interests, ethical principles, and social responsibility.
* Regulatory mandates are not always comprehensive, clear, or consistent. Organizations may face different or conflicting regulations across jurisdictions, sectors, or domains. Organizations may also need to interpret and apply the regulations to their specific context and risk profile, which may require additional guidance or expertise.
* Regulatory mandates are not always sufficient, effective, or efficient. Organizations may need to go beyond the minimum requirements of the regulations to achieve their business objectives, mitigate their risks, or enhance their performance. Organizations may also need to adopt more flexible, scalable, and innovative approaches to TPRM compliance, rather than following a rigid, one-size-fits-all, or check-the-box model.
Therefore, the correct answer is B. Organizations rely on regulatory mandates to define and structure TPRM compliance requirements, as this is a false statement regarding the risk factors an organization may include when defining TPRM compliance requirements. References:
* 1: Understanding TPRM Compliance: A Comprehensive Guide | Prevalent
* 2: What Is Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM)? 2024 Guide | UpGuard
* 3: Third-Party Risk Management and ISO Requirements for 2022 | Reciprocity
質問 # 24
Your company has been alerted that an IT vendor began utilizing a subcontractor located in a country restricted by company policy. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?
- A. Notify management to approve an exception and ensure that contract provisions require prior
"notification and evidence of subcontractor due diligence - B. inform the business unit and recommend that the company cease future work with the IT vendor due to company policy
- C. Update the vender inventory with the mew location information in order to schedule a reassessment
- D. Inform the business unit and ask the vendor to replace the subcontractor at their expense in "order to move the processing back to an approved country
正解：D
解説：
This answer is the best approach because it aligns with the principles of third-party risk management, which include ensuring compliance with company policies, contractual obligations, and regulatory requirements. By asking the vendor to replace the subcontractor, the company is exercising its right to terminate or modify the relationship if the vendor fails to meet the agreed-upon standards or poses unacceptable risks. This also minimizes the potential impact of the vendor's non-compliance on the company's reputation, operations, and data security. The other options are less effective because they either ignore the issue, compromise the company's policy, or rely on the vendor's self-assessment without verification. References:
* Third Party Risk Management Framework, Module 3: Program Governance, Section 3.2: Policies and Procedures, p. 14
* Third Party Risk Management Framework, Module 4: Program Components, Section 4.3: Contracting, p. 24
* Third Party Risk Management Framework, Module 5: Program Implementation, Section 5.2: Ongoing Monitoring, p. 32
* Best-Practices Guidance for Third-Party Risk, Section: Defend Against Privileged User Risks, p. 2
* Five Best Practices to Manage and Control Third-Party Risk, Section: Best Practices for Controlling Third-Party Vendor Risks, p. 3
質問 # 25
Which statement is TRUE regarding the use of questionnaires in third party risk assessments?
- A. Assessment questionnaires should be configured based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated
- B. All topic areas included in the questionnaire require validation during the assessment
- C. The total number of questions included in the questionnaire assigns the risk tier
- D. Questionnaires are optional since reliance on contract terms is a sufficient control
正解：A
解説：
Questionnaires are one of the most common and effective tools for conducting third party risk assessments.
They help organizations gather information about the security and compliance practices of their vendors and service providers, as well as identify any gaps or weaknesses that may pose a risk to the organization.
However, not all questionnaires are created equal. Depending on the nature and scope of the third party relationship, different types and levels of questions may be required to adequately assess the risk. Therefore, it is important to configure the assessment questionnaires based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated12.
The risk rating of a third party is determined by various factors, such as the criticality of the service they provide, the sensitivity of the data they handle, the regulatory requirements they must comply with, and the potential impact of a breach or disruption on the organization. The higher the risk rating, the more detailed and comprehensive the questionnaire should be. For example, a high-risk third party that processes personal or financial data may require a questionnaire that covers multiple domains of security and privacy, such as data protection, encryption, access control, incident response, and audit. A low-risk third party that provides a non-critical service or does not handle sensitive data may require a questionnaire that covers only the basic security controls, such as firewall, antivirus, and password policy12.
The type of service that a third party provides also influences the configuration of the questionnaire. Different services may have different security and compliance standards and best practices that need to be addressed.
For example, a third party that provides cloud-based services may require a questionnaire that covers topics such as cloud security architecture, data residency, service level agreements, and disaster recovery. A third party that provides software development services may require a questionnaire that covers topics such as software development life cycle, code review, testing, and vulnerability management12.
By configuring the assessment questionnaires based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated, organizations can ensure that they ask the right questions to the right third parties, and obtain relevant and meaningful information to support their risk management decisions. Therefore, the statement that assessment questionnaires should be configured based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated is TRUE12. References: 1: How to Use SIG Questionnaires for Better Third-Party Risk Management 2:
Third-party risk assessment questionnaires - KPMG India
質問 # 26
The following statements reflect user obligations defined in end-user device policies EXCEPT:
- A. A statement that defines the process to remove all organizational data, settings and accounts alt offboarding
- B. A statement that specifies the ability to synchronize mobile device data with enterprise systems
- C. A statement detailing user responsibility in ensuring the security of the end-user device
- D. A statement specifying the owner of data on the end-user device
正解：B
解説：
End-user device policies are policies that establish the rules and requirements for the use and management of devices that access organizational data, networks, and systems. These policies typically include user obligations that define the responsibilities and expectations of the users regarding the security, privacy, and compliance of the devices they use. According to the web search results from the search_web tool, some common user obligations defined in end-user device policies are:
* A statement specifying the owner of data on the end-user device: This statement clarifies who owns the data stored on the device, whether it is the organization, the user, or a third party. This statement also defines the rights and obligations of the data owner and the data custodian, such as the access, retention, disposal, and protection of the data123.
* A statement that defines the process to remove all organizational data, settings and accounts at offboarding: This statement outlines the steps and procedures that the user must follow to securely erase or transfer all organizational data, settings, and accounts from the device when they leave the
* organization or change their role. This statement also specifies the roles and responsibilities of the user, the organization, and the device manager in ensuring the proper offboarding of the device143.
* A statement detailing user responsibility in ensuring the security of the end-user device: This statement describes the actions and measures that the user must take to protect the device from unauthorized access, theft, loss, damage, or compromise. This statement may include requirements such as enabling encryption, password, firewall, antivirus, updates, and backups, as well as reporting any incidents or issues related to the device1435.
However, option D, a statement that specifies the ability to synchronize mobile device data with enterprise systems, is not a user obligation defined in end-user device policies. Rather, this statement is a feature or functionality that may be enabled or disabled by the organization or the device manager, depending on the security and compliance needs of the organization. This statement may also be part of a device configuration policy or a mobile device management policy, which are different from end-user device policies. Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it is the only one that does not reflect a user obligation defined in end-user device policies. References: The following resources support the verified answer and explanation:
* 1: End-User Device Policy | IT Services - University of Chicago
* 4: Device compliance policies in Microsoft Intune | Microsoft Learn
* 2: Basics of an End User Computing Policy - Apparity Blog
* 3: End-User Device Management Standard Operating Procedure
* 5: End-User Devices | Information Security - University of Chicago
質問 # 27
Which statement is NOT an example of the purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics?
- A. To communicate the status of policy compliance with TPRM onboarding, periodic assessment and off-boarding requirements
- B. To document the agreed upon corrective action plan between external parties based on the severity of findings
- C. To develop and provide periodic reporting to management based on TPRM results
- D. To communicate the status of findings identified in vendor assessments and escalate issues es needed
正解：B
解説：
The purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics is to inform and align the organization's stakeholders on the status, progress, and outcomes of the TPRM program.
This includes communicating the results of vendor assessments, the compliance level of the organization's policies and procedures, and the periodic reporting to management and other relevant parties. However, documenting the corrective action plan between external parties is not an internal communication, but rather an external one. This is because the corrective action plan is a formal agreement between the organization and the vendor to address and resolve the issues identified in the assessment. Therefore, this statement is not an example of the purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics. References:
* 15 KPIs & Metrics to Measure the Success of Your TPRM Program
* Third-party risk management metrics: Best practices to enhance your program
* 3 Best Third-Party Risk Management Software Solutions (2024)
質問 # 28
Which statement is FALSE when describing the third party risk assessors' role when conducting a controls evaluation using an industry framework?
- A. The Assessor's role is to provide an opinion on the effectiveness of controls conducted over a period of time in their report
- B. The Assessor's role is to conduct discovery with subject matter experts to understand the control environment
- C. The Assessor's role is to conduct discovery and validate responses from the risk assessment questionnaire by testing or validating controls
- D. The Assessor's role is to review compliance artifacts and identify potential control gaps based on evaluation of the presence of control attributes
正解：A
解説：
According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, the third party risk assessor's role is to evaluate the design and operating effectiveness of the third party's controls based on an industry framework, such as ISO, NIST, COBIT, or COSO1. The assessor's role is not to provide an opinion on the effectiveness of controls, but rather to report the results of the evaluation in a factual and objective manner2. The assessor's role is also to conduct discovery with subject matter experts to understand the control environment, to conduct discovery and validate responses from the risk assessment questionnaire by testing or validating controls, and to review compliance artifacts and identify potential control gaps based on evaluation of the presence of control attributes1. These are all true statements that describe the assessor's role when conducting a controls evaluation using an industry framework.
References:
* 1: Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, page 29
* 2: What is a Third-Party Risk Assessment? - RiskOptics
質問 # 29
Which of the following would be a component of an arganization's Ethics and Code of Conduct Program?
- A. A process to conduct periodic access reviews of critical Human Resource files
- B. Signing acknowledgement of Acceptable Use policy for use of company assets
- C. Participation in the company's annual privacy awareness program
- D. A disciplinary process for non-compliance with key policies, including formal termination or change of status process based on non-compliance
正解：D
解説：
An organization's Ethics and Code of Conduct Program is a set of policies, procedures, and practices that define the expected standards of behavior and ethical values for all employees and stakeholders. A key component of such a program is a disciplinary process that outlines the consequences and actions for violating the code of conduct or any other relevant policies. A disciplinary process helps to enforce the code of conduct, deter unethical behavior, and protect the organization's reputation and integrity. A disciplinary process should include clear criteria for determining the severity and frequency of violations, the roles and responsibilities of the parties involved, the steps and timelines for investigation and resolution, and the range of sanctions and remedies available. A disciplinary process should also be fair, consistent, transparent, and respectful of the rights and dignity of the accused and the accuser. A disciplinary process may involve formal termination or change of status of the employee, depending on the nature and impact of the violation. Therefore, option B is a correct component of an organization's Ethics and Code of Conduct Program.
The other options are not necessarily components of an Ethics and Code of Conduct Program, although they may be related or supportive of it. Option A, participation in the company's annual privacy awareness program, is more likely to be a component of a Privacy Program, which is a specific area of ethics and compliance that deals with the protection and use of personal information. Option C, signing acknowledgement of Acceptable Use policy for use of company assets, is more likely to be a component of an Information Security Program, which is another specific area of ethics and compliance that deals with the safeguarding and management of data and systems. Option D, a process to conduct periodic access reviews of critical Human Resource files, is more likely to be a component of an Internal Control Program, which is a general area of ethics and compliance that deals with the design and implementation of controls to ensure the reliability and accuracy of financial and operational information. References:
* 1: Creating an Effective Code of Conduct (and Code Program) - Corporate Compliance Insights
* 2: Code of Conduct & Ethics (Examples and Best Practices) - Status.net
* 3: Why Have a Code of Conduct - Free Ethics & Compliance Toolkit
* 4: "Code of Ethics" and "Code of Conduct" - GeeksforGeeks
* 5: Six Tips on How to Implement a Strong Ethics Program - KnowledgeLeader
質問 # 30
A contract clause that enables each party to share the amount of information security risk is known as:
- A. Force majeure
- B. Cyber Insurance
- C. Mutual indemnification
- D. Limitation of liability
正解：C
解説：
Indemnification is a contractual obligation by which one party agrees to compensate another party for any losses or damages that may arise from a specified event or circumstance. Mutual indemnification means that both parties agree to indemnify each other for certain losses or damages, such as those caused by a breach of contract, negligence, or violation of law. Mutual indemnification can enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, as it can provide a mechanism for allocating the responsibility and liability for any security incidents or breaches that may affect either party or their customers. Mutual indemnification can also incentivize each party to maintain adequate security controls and practices, as well as to cooperate and communicate effectively in the event of a security incident or breach.
The other options are not contract clauses that enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, because:
* A. Limitation of liability is a contract clause that limits the amount or type of damages that one party can claim from another party in the event of a breach of contract or other legal action. Limitation of liability does not enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, as it can reduce or cap the liability of one party, but not necessarily distribute or balance the risk between both parties.
* B. Cyber insurance is a type of insurance policy that covers the costs and losses resulting from cyberattacks, data breaches, or other cyber incidents. Cyber insurance does not enable each party to
* share the amount of information security risk, as it can transfer or mitigate the risk to a third-party insurer, but not necessarily allocate or share the risk between both parties.
* C. Force majeure is a contract clause that excuses one or both parties from performing their contractual obligations in the event of an unforeseen or unavoidable event or circumstance that is beyond their control, such as a natural disaster, war, or pandemic. Force majeure does not enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, as it can suspend or terminate the contract in the event of a force majeure event, but not necessarily distribute or balance the risk between both parties.
References:
* Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, page 62, section 5.2.2: Contractual Terms
* Third-Party Risk Management: Vendor Contract Terms and Conditions, section: Indemnification
* Cybersecurity risks from third party vendors: PwC, section: Contractual terms and conditions
* [Third-Party Risk Management: The 3rd Party Ecosystem: How to Manage the Risk While Keeping the Benefit], section: Contractual Terms and Conditions
質問 # 31
Which factor in patch management is MOST important when conducting postcybersecurity incident analysis related to systems and applications?
- A. Approvals
- B. Log retention
- C. Testing
- D. Configuration
正解：C
解説：
In patch management, testing is the most crucial factor when conducting post-cybersecurity incident analysis related to systems and applications. Proper testing of patches before deployment ensures that they effectively address vulnerabilities without introducing new issues or incompatibilities that could impact system functionality or security. Testing allows organizations to verify that the patch resolves the identified security issue without adversely affecting the system or application's performance. It also helps in identifying potential conflicts with existing configurations or dependencies. Effective testing strategies include regression testing, performance testing, and security testing to ensure comprehensive validation of the patch's effectiveness and safety before widespread deployment. This approach aligns with best practices in patch management, emphasizing the importance of thorough testing to mitigate the risk of unintended consequences and ensure the continued security and stability of systems and applications.
References:
* Industry standards such as ISO/IEC 27001 (Information Security Management) highlight the importance of a systematic approach to managing patches, including the role of testing in assessing the effectiveness and impact of patches.
* Resources like "Patch Management Best Practices" from the Center for Internet Security (CIS) provide guidance on developing and implementing a patch management program that includes rigorous testing procedures to ensure patches are safely and effectively applied.
質問 # 32
Which of the following methods of validating pre-employment screening attributes is appropriate due to limitations of international or state regulation?
- A. Providing and sampling complete personnel files to demonstrate unique screening results
- B. Requesting evidence of the performance of pre-employment screening when permitted by law
- C. Reviewing evidence of web search of social media sites
- D. Requiring evidence of drug testing
正解：B
解説：
it is the most appropriate and compliant method of validating pre-employment screening attributes among the given options. Requesting evidence of the performance of pre-employment screening when permitted by law means that the organization respects the legal and regulatory boundaries of different jurisdictions and does not impose unnecessary or unlawful requirements on its third parties. It also ensures that the organization obtains relevant and reliable information about the third parties' screening processes and outcomes, which can help assess their suitability and risk level.
The other options are incorrect because they are either inappropriate or ineffective methods of validating pre-employment screening attributes. Reviewing evidence of web search of social media sites (A) is inappropriate because it may violate the privacy and data protection rights of the third parties and their employees, as well as expose the organization to potential bias and discrimination claims. Providing and sampling complete personnel files to demonstrate unique screening results (B) is ineffective because it may not reflect the actual screening attributes of the third parties, as they may have different screening criteria, standards, and methods than the organization. Requiring evidence of drug testing is inappropriate because it may not be relevant or necessary for the nature and scope of the third-party relationship, and it may also conflict with the laws and regulations of different jurisdictions that prohibit or limit such testing. References:
https://www.onetrust.com/blog/third-party-risk-management/
質問 # 33
Which requirement is the MOST important for managing risk when the vendor contract terminates?
- A. The requirement to ensure secure data destruction and asset return
- B. The responsibility to perform a financial review of outstanding invoices
- C. The obligation to define contract terms for transition services
- D. The commitment to perform a final assessment based upon due diligence standards
正解：A
解説：
When a vendor contract terminates, one of the most important requirements for managing risk is to ensure that the vendor securely destroys or returns any data or assets that belong to the organization or its customers. This is to prevent any unauthorized access, use, disclosure, or loss of sensitive information or resources that could result in legal, regulatory, reputational, or financial consequences. The organization should also verify that the vendor complies with this requirement by requesting evidence or conducting audits.
The other options are also important, but not as critical as ensuring data and asset security. Performing a financial review of outstanding invoices is necessary to avoid overpaying or underpaying the vendor, and to resolve any disputes or claims. Performing a final assessment based on due diligence standards is useful to evaluate the vendor's performance, identify any issues or gaps, and document any lessons learned or best practices. Defining contract terms for transition services is helpful to facilitate a smooth and orderly handover of responsibilities, deliverables, or processes to another vendor or internal team.
References:
* 1: Shared Assessments, a leading provider of third party risk management solutions, offers a comprehensive guide for Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) candidates, which covers the core concepts and best practices of third party risk management, including vendor offboarding and termination.
* 2: Prevalent, a platform for third party risk management, provides a blog post on vendor offboarding and termination risk management, which includes a checklist and a template for secure data and asset destruction or return.
* 3: Spendflo, a platform for vendor risk management, provides a guide on vendor risk management, which includes the importance of data and asset security when terminating vendor contracts.
質問 # 34
Which statement is FALSE regarding the primary factors in determining vendor risk classification?
- A. The importance to the outsourcer's recovery objectives may trigger a higher risk tier
- B. The type and volume of personal data processed may trigger a higher risk rating based on the criticality of the systems
- C. Network connectivity or remote access may trigger a higher vendor risk classification only for third parties that process personal information
- D. The geographic area where the vendor is located may trigger specific regulatory obligations
正解：C
解説：
This statement is false because network connectivity or remote access may trigger a higher vendor risk classification for any third party that has access to the organization's network, systems, or data, regardless of whether they process personal information or not. Network connectivity or remote access increases the exposure of the organization to cyberattacks, data breaches, or unauthorized access by malicious actors.
Therefore, the organization should assess the security controls and practices of the third party, such as encryption, authentication, firewall, antivirus, and patch management, to ensure that they meet the organization's standards and expectations. The organization should also monitor the network activity and performance of the third party, and establish clear policies and procedures for granting, revoking, or modifying access rights. The other statements (A, B, and C) are true regarding the primary factors in determining vendor risk classification, as they reflect the potential impact, likelihood, and severity of the risks associated with the vendor's location, importance, and data processing. References:
* Vendor Classification, Shared Assessments
* Impact of Risk Attributes on Vendor Risk Assessment and Classification, SSRN
* Guide to Vendor Risk Assessment, Smartsheet
* How Do You Determine Vendor Criticality?, UpGuard
質問 # 35
Which type of contract provision is MOST important in managing Fourth-Nth party risk after contract signing and on-boarding due diligence is complete?
- A. Indemnification and liability
- B. Subcontractor notice and approval
- C. Right to audit
- D. Breach notification
正解：B
解説：
Fourth-Nth party risk refers to the potential threats and vulnerabilities associated with the subcontractors, vendors, or service providers of an organization's direct third-party partners12. After contract signing and on-boarding due diligence is complete, the most important type of contract provision to manage Fourth-Nth party risk is subcontractor notice and approval. This provision requires the third party to inform the organization of any subcontracting arrangements and obtain the organization's consent before engaging any Fourth-Nth parties345. This provision enables the organization to have visibility and control over the extended network of suppliers and service providers, and to assess the potential risks and impacts of any outsourcing decisions. Subcontractor notice and approval also helps the organization to ensure that the Fourth-Nth parties comply with the same standards and expectations as the third party, and to hold the third party accountable for the performance and security of the Fourth-Nth parties345. References:
* 1: Understanding 4th- and Nth-Party Risk: What Do You Need to Know? | Mitratech
* 2: Understanding 4th- and Nth-Party Risk: What Do You Need to Know? | Mitratech Holdings, Inc - JDSupra
* 3: First, 2nd , 3rd , 4th, 5th Parties: How to Measure the Tiers of Risk
* 4: Managing 4th Party Risk with Vendor Insurance Verification - Evident ID
* 5: How to Write Fourth-Party Vendor Requirements Into the Contract - Venminder
質問 # 36
Which statement BEST describes the use of risk based decisioning in prioritizing gaps identified at a critical vendor when defining the corrective action plan?
- A. The assessor determined that all gaps should be logged and communicated that if the gaps were corrected immediately they would not need to be included in the findings report
- B. The assessor determined that gaps should be analyzed, documented, reviewed for compensating controls, and submitted to the business owner to approve risk treatment plan
- C. The assessor decided that the critical gaps should be discussed in the closing meeting so that the vendor can begin to implement corrective actions immediately
- D. The assessor concluded that all gaps should be logged and treated as high severity findings since the assessment was performed on a critical vendor
正解：B
解説：
According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, risk based decisioning is the process of applying risk criteria to prioritize and address the gaps identified during a third-party risk assessment1. The assessor should analyze the gaps based on the impact, likelihood, and urgency of the risk, and document the findings and recommendations in a report. The assessor should also review the existing or proposed compensating controls that could mitigate the risk, and submit the report to the business owner for approval of the risk treatment plan. The risk treatment plan could include accepting, transferring, avoiding, or reducing the risk, depending on the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization1.
The other statements do not reflect the best use of risk based decisioning, as they either ignore the risk analysis and documentation process, or apply a uniform or arbitrary approach to prioritizing and addressing the gaps. The assessor should not decide or conclude on the risk treatment plan without consulting the business owner, as the business owner is ultimately responsible for the third-party relationship and the risk management decisions1. The assessor should also not communicate that the gaps would not be included in the report if they were corrected immediately, as this could compromise the integrity and transparency of the assessment process and the report2.
References:
* 1: Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, pages 29-30,
33-34
* 2: Third-Party Risk Management: Final Interagency Guidance, page 10
質問 # 37
When conducting an assessment of a third party's physical security controls, which of the following represents the innermost layer in a 'Defense in Depth' model?
- A. Public external
- B. Public internal
- C. Private internal
- D. Restricted entry
正解：C
解説：
In the 'Defense in Depth' security model, the innermost layer typically focuses on protecting the most sensitive and critical assets, which are often categorized as 'Private internal'. This layer includes security controls and measures that are designed to safeguard the core, confidential aspects of an organization's infrastructure and data. It encompasses controls such as access controls, encryption, and monitoring of sensitive systems and data to prevent unauthorized access and ensure data integrity and confidentiality. The
'Private internal' layer is crucial for maintaining the security of critical information and systems that are essential to the organization's operations and could have the most significant impact if compromised.
Implementing robust security measures at this layer is vital for mitigating risks associated with physical access to critical infrastructure and sensitive information.
References:
* Security frameworks and standards, including NIST SP 800-53 (Security and Privacy Controls for Federal Information Systems and Organizations) and the SANS Institute's guidelines on implementing
'Defense in Depth', provide detailed recommendations on securing the innermost layers of an organization's information systems.
* Publications such as "Physical Security Principles" by ASIS International offer insights into best practices for securing the private internal layer, including access control systems, surveillance, and intrusion detection mechanisms.
質問 # 38
What attribute is MOST likely to be included in the software development lifecycle (SDLC) process?
- A. Scheduling the frequency of automated vulnerability scans
- B. Conducting peer code reviews
- C. Scanning for data input validation in production
- D. Defining the scope of annual penetration tests
正解：B
解説：
Peer code reviews are an essential part of the software development lifecycle (SDLC) process, as they help to improve the quality, security, and maintainability of the code. Peer code reviews involve having other developers review the code written by a developer before it is merged into the main branch or deployed to production. Peer code reviews can help to identify and fix errors, bugs, vulnerabilities, performance issues, coding standards violations, design flaws, and other issues that may affect the functionality or usability of the software. Peer code reviews also facilitate knowledge sharing, collaboration, and feedback among the development team, which can enhance the skills and productivity of the developers123.
The other options are not as likely to be included in the SDLC process, as they are either performed at different stages or not directly related to the development of the software. Scheduling the frequency of automated vulnerability scans and defining the scope of annual penetration tests are more related to the security testing and monitoring of the software, which are usually done after the development phase or as part of the maintenance phase. Scanning for data input validation in production is also a security measure that is done after the software is deployed, and it is not a good practice to rely on production testing alone, as it may expose the software to potential attacks or data breaches. Data input validation should be done during the development and testing phases, as well as in production123. References:
* What is SDLC? - Software Development Lifecycle Explained - AWS
* Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) - GeeksforGeeks
* What Is the Software Development Life Cycle? SDLC Explained | Coursera
質問 # 39
Which risk treatment approach typically requires a negotiation of contract terms between parties?
- A. Accept the risk
- B. Monitor the risk
- C. Transfer the risk
- D. Mitigate the risk
正解：C
解説：
Risk treatment is the process of selecting and implementing measures to modify risk, according to the organization's risk appetite and tolerance. There are four main risk treatment options: avoid, reduce, transfer, or retain the risk123. Among these options, risk transfer typically requires a negotiation of contract terms between parties, as it involves shifting the responsibility or burden of the risk to another entity, such as an insurer, a supplier, a partner, or a customer1234. Risk transfer can be achieved through various contractual arrangements, such as insurance policies, indemnity clauses, warranties, guarantees, service level agreements, or outsourcing agreements1234. These arrangements usually involve a cost-benefit analysis, a due diligence process, and a mutual agreement on the terms and conditions of the risk transfer1234. Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it is the only one that reflects a risk treatment approach that typically requires a negotiation of contract terms between parties. References: The following resources support the verified answer and explanation:
* 1: Risk Treatment - ENISA
* 2: Four Basic Risk Treatment Planning Approaches - DigiLEAF
* 3: 3 Steps to Treating Your Organizational Risks - American Society of ...
* 4: Risk Management Framework - Treat Risks - Chartered Accountants ANZ
質問 # 40
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