2024年最新のに更新された検証済みの合格させるCTPRP学習ガイドベスト問題集を使おう [Q17-Q38]

2024年最新のに更新された検証済みの合格させるCTPRP学習ガイドベスト問題集を使おう Courses

究極なガイドはCTPRP最新版限定公開

質問 # 17
You are updating program requirements due to shift in use of technologies by vendors to enable hybrid work.
Which statement is LEAST likely to represent components of an Asset
Management Program?

• A. Asset inventories should track the flow or distribution of items used to fulfill products and Services across production lines
• B. Each asset should include an organizational owner who is responsible for the asset throughout its life cycle
• C. Assets should be classified based on criticality or data sensitivity
• D. Asset inventories should include connections to external parties, networks, or systems that process data

正解：A

解説：
Asset management is the process of identifying, tracking, and managing the physical and digital assets of an organization. An asset management program is a set of policies, procedures, and tools that help to ensure the optimal use, security, and disposal of assets. According to the Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide1, an asset management program should include the following components:
* Asset inventories: A comprehensive and accurate list of all assets owned, leased, or used by the organization, including hardware, software, data, and services. Asset inventories should include connections to external parties, networks, or systems that process data, as this may introduce additional risks and dependencies12.
* Asset owners: A clear assignment of roles and responsibilities for each asset, including an organizational owner who is accountable for the asset throughout its life cycle. Asset owners should ensure that assets are properly maintained, updated, secured, and disposed of in accordance with the organization's policies and standards13.
* Asset classification: A consistent and objective method of categorizing assets based on their criticality or data sensitivity. Asset classification helps to determine the appropriate level of protection, monitoring, and testing for each asset, as well as the potential impact of asset loss or compromise1 .
* Asset controls: A set of measures and mechanisms that help to safeguard assets from unauthorized access, use, modification, disclosure, or destruction. Asset controls may include physical, technical, administrative, or contractual means, such as locks, encryption, passwords, policies, or agreements1 .
The statement that is least likely to represent a component of an asset management program is D. Asset inventories should track the flow or distribution of items used to fulfill products and Services across production lines. This statement describes a supply chain management function, not an asset management function. Supply chain management is the process of planning, coordinating, and controlling the flow of materials, information, and services from suppliers to customers. Supply chain management may involve some aspects of asset management, such as inventory control, quality assurance, or vendor risk management, but it is not the same as asset management . Asset management focuses on the assets that the organization owns or uses, not the assets that the organization produces or delivers.
References:
* 1: Shared Assessments. (2020). Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide.
* 2: ISACA. (2019). COBIT 2019 Framework: Governance and Management Objectives. APO03 Manage enterprise architecture.
* 3: ISO. (2018). ISO/IEC 27001:2018 Information technology - Security techniques - Information security management systems - Requirements. Clause 8.1.2 Asset management roles and responsibilities.
* : NIST. (2013). NIST Special Publication 800-53 Revision 4 Security and Privacy Controls for Federal Information Systems and Organizations. RA-2 Security Categorization.
* : NIST. (2013). NIST Special Publication 800-53 Revision 4 Security and Privacy Controls for Federal Information Systems and Organizations. CM-8 Information System Component Inventory.
* : APICS. (2018). APICS Dictionary, 16th edition. Supply chain management.
* : ISACA. (2019). COBIT 2019 Framework: Governance and Management Objectives. APO13 Manage security.

質問 # 18
Which of the following factors is MOST important when assessing the risk of shadow IT in organizational security?

• A. The organization defines staffing levels to address impact of any turnover in security roles
• B. The organization requires security training and certification for security personnel
• C. The organization's resources and investment are sufficient to meet security requirements
• D. The organization maintains adequate policies and procedures that communicate required controls for security functions

正解：D

解説：
Shadow IT is the use and management of any IT technologies, solutions, services, projects, and infrastructure without formal approval and support of internal IT departments. Shadow IT can pose significant security risks to the organization, such as data breaches, compliance violations, malware infections, or network disruptions.
Therefore, assessing and mitigating the risk of shadow IT is an essential part of organizational security.
One of the most important factors when assessing the risk of shadow IT is whether the organization maintains adequate policies and procedures that communicate required controls for security functions. Policies and procedures are the documents that define the organization's security objectives, standards, roles, responsibilities, and processes. They provide guidance and direction for the organization's security activities, such as risk assessment, vendor management, incident response, data protection, access control, etc. They also establish the expectations and requirements for the organization's employees, vendors, and other stakeholders regarding the use and management of IT resources.
By maintaining adequate policies and procedures that communicate required controls for security functions, the organization can:
* Educate and inform its employees about the security risks and implications of shadow IT, and the benefits and advantages of using authorized and supported IT resources.
* Establish and enforce clear and consistent rules and boundaries for the use and management of IT resources, and the consequences and penalties for violating them.
* Monitor and audit the compliance and performance of its employees, vendors, and other stakeholders regarding the use and management of IT resources, and identify and address any deviations or issues.
* Review and update its policies and procedures regularly, and communicate any changes or updates to its employees, vendors, and other stakeholders.
By doing so, the organization can reduce the likelihood and impact of shadow IT, and increase the visibility and accountability of its IT environment. The organization can also foster a culture of security awareness and responsibility among its employees, vendors, and other stakeholders, and encourage them to report and resolve any shadow IT incidents or problems.
The other factors, such as the organization's security training and certification, staffing levels, and resources and investment, are also relevant for assessing the risk of shadow IT, but they are not as important as the organization's policies and procedures. Security training and certification can help the organization's security personnel to acquire and maintain the necessary skills and knowledge to deal with shadow IT, but they do not address the root causes or motivations of shadow IT. Staffing levels can affect the organization's ability to detect and respond to shadow IT, but they do not prevent or deter shadow IT from occurring. Resources and investment can enable the organization to provide adequate and appropriate IT resources to its employees, vendors, and other stakeholders, but they do not guarantee the satisfaction or compliance of those parties.
References:
* : Shadow IT Explained: Risks & Opportunities - BMC Software
* : What is Shadow IT? | IBM
* : Shadow IT: What Are the Risks and How Can You Mitigate Them? - Ekran System
* : Policies and Procedures - Shared Assessments

質問 # 19
You receive a call from a vendor that two laptops and a tablet are missing that were used to process your company data. The asset loss occurred two years ago, but was only recently discovered. That statement may indicate that this vendor is lacking an adequate:

• A. Data Loss Prevention Program
• B. Information Security Incident Notification Policy
• C. Physical and Environmental Security Program
• D. Asset Management Program

正解：D

解説：
The scenario described indicates a lack in the vendor's Asset Management Program. An effective Asset Management Program includes maintaining an accurate inventory of hardware and devices, monitoring their status, and promptly identifying and responding to any losses or discrepancies. The failure to discover the loss of laptops and a tablet that processed company data for two years suggests deficiencies in tracking and managing physical assets. This lapse can lead to risks associated with data security, regulatory compliance, and operational integrity. A robust Asset Management Program should ensure that all assets are accounted for, their usage is monitored, and any anomalies or losses are quickly identified and addressed.
References:
* IT asset management standards, such as ISO/IEC 27001 (Information Security Management), emphasize the importance of maintaining an inventory of assets and implementing appropriate controls to safeguard
* organizational assets.
* The "IT Asset Management Handbook" by the International Association of IT Asset Managers (IAITAM) provides guidelines on establishing a comprehensive Asset Management Program, including best practices for asset tracking, monitoring, and loss prevention.

質問 # 20
Which statement BEST describes the use of risk based decisioning in prioritizing gaps identified at a critical vendor when defining the corrective action plan?

• A. The assessor determined that all gaps should be logged and communicated that if the gaps were corrected immediately they would not need to be included in the findings report
• B. The assessor determined that gaps should be analyzed, documented, reviewed for compensating controls, and submitted to the business owner to approve risk treatment plan
• C. The assessor concluded that all gaps should be logged and treated as high severity findings since the assessment was performed on a critical vendor
• D. The assessor decided that the critical gaps should be discussed in the closing meeting so that the vendor can begin to implement corrective actions immediately

正解：B

解説：
According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, risk based decisioning is the process of applying risk criteria to prioritize and address the gaps identified during a third-party risk assessment1. The assessor should analyze the gaps based on the impact, likelihood, and urgency of the risk, and document the findings and recommendations in a report. The assessor should also review the existing or proposed compensating controls that could mitigate the risk, and submit the report to the business owner for approval of the risk treatment plan. The risk treatment plan could include accepting, transferring, avoiding, or reducing the risk, depending on the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization1.
The other statements do not reflect the best use of risk based decisioning, as they either ignore the risk analysis and documentation process, or apply a uniform or arbitrary approach to prioritizing and addressing the gaps. The assessor should not decide or conclude on the risk treatment plan without consulting the business owner, as the business owner is ultimately responsible for the third-party relationship and the risk management decisions1. The assessor should also not communicate that the gaps would not be included in the report if they were corrected immediately, as this could compromise the integrity and transparency of the assessment process and the report2.
References:
* 1: Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, pages 29-30,
33-34
* 2: Third-Party Risk Management: Final Interagency Guidance, page 10

質問 # 21
Your company has been alerted that an IT vendor began utilizing a subcontractor located in a country restricted by company policy. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?

• A. Inform the business unit and ask the vendor to replace the subcontractor at their expense in "order to move the processing back to an approved country
• B. inform the business unit and recommend that the company cease future work with the IT vendor due to company policy
• C. Notify management to approve an exception and ensure that contract provisions require prior
  "notification and evidence of subcontractor due diligence
• D. Update the vender inventory with the mew location information in order to schedule a reassessment

正解：A

解説：
This answer is the best approach because it aligns with the principles of third-party risk management, which include ensuring compliance with company policies, contractual obligations, and regulatory requirements. By asking the vendor to replace the subcontractor, the company is exercising its right to terminate or modify the relationship if the vendor fails to meet the agreed-upon standards or poses unacceptable risks. This also minimizes the potential impact of the vendor's non-compliance on the company's reputation, operations, and data security. The other options are less effective because they either ignore the issue, compromise the company's policy, or rely on the vendor's self-assessment without verification. References:
* Third Party Risk Management Framework, Module 3: Program Governance, Section 3.2: Policies and Procedures, p. 14
* Third Party Risk Management Framework, Module 4: Program Components, Section 4.3: Contracting, p. 24
* Third Party Risk Management Framework, Module 5: Program Implementation, Section 5.2: Ongoing Monitoring, p. 32
* Best-Practices Guidance for Third-Party Risk, Section: Defend Against Privileged User Risks, p. 2
* Five Best Practices to Manage and Control Third-Party Risk, Section: Best Practices for Controlling Third-Party Vendor Risks, p. 3

質問 # 22
When updating TPRM vendor classification requirements with a focus on availability, which risk rating factors provide the greatest impact to the analysis?

• A. impact on operations and end users; impact on revenue; impact on regulatory compliance
• B. Type of data by classification; volume of records included in data processing
• C. Network connectivity; remote access to applications
• D. Financial viability of the vendor; ability to meet performance metrics

正解：A

解説：
TPRM vendor classification is the process of categorizing vendors based on their criticality, risk level, and service type. Vendor classification helps to prioritize and allocate resources for vendor assessment, monitoring, and remediation. Vendor classification should be updated periodically to reflect changes in the business environment, vendor performance, and regulatory requirements.
When updating TPRM vendor classification requirements with a focus on availability, the risk rating factors that provide the greatest impact to the analysis are the impact on operations and end users, the impact on revenue, and the impact on regulatory compliance. This is because:
* Availability is the degree to which a system or service is accessible and functional when required by authorized users. Availability is a key component of information security and business continuity, as it ensures that the business can operate normally and deliver value to its customers and stakeholders.
* Impact on operations and end users measures the extent to which a vendor's service disruption or failure affects the business processes, functions, and activities that depend on the vendor's service. A high impact on operations and end users means that the vendor's service is essential for the business to perform its core functions and meet its objectives, and that any downtime or degradation of the service would cause significant operational delays, inefficiencies, or losses.
* Impact on revenue measures the extent to which a vendor's service disruption or failure affects the business's income, profitability, and market share. A high impact on revenue means that the vendor's service is directly or indirectly linked to the business's revenue generation, and that any downtime or degradation of the service would cause substantial financial losses, reduced customer satisfaction, or competitive disadvantage.
* Impact on regulatory compliance measures the extent to which a vendor's service disruption or failure affects the business's adherence to the laws, regulations, standards, and contractual obligations that govern its industry, sector, or jurisdiction. A high impact on regulatory compliance means that the vendor's service is subject to strict regulatory requirements, and that any downtime or degradation of the service would cause serious legal penalties, fines, sanctions, or reputational damage.
Therefore, these three factors are the most important to consider when updating TPRM vendor classification requirements with a focus on availability, as they reflect the potential consequences and risks of vendor unavailability for the business.
References:
* CTPRP Job Guide
* Criticality and Risk Rating Vendors 101
* The Third-Party Vendor Risk Management Lifecycle
* What Is Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM)? 2024 Guide
* Third-Party Risk Management and ISO Requirements for 2022

質問 # 23
Which example of a response to external environmental factors is LEAST likely to be managed directly within the BCP or IT DR plan?

• A. Protocols for social media channels and PR communication
• B. Response to a natural or man-made disruption
• C. Dependency on key employee or supplier issues
• D. Response to a large scale illness or health outbreak

正解：A

解説：
A BCP or IT DR plan is a set of procedures and actions that an organization takes to ensure the continuity and recovery of its critical business functions and IT systems in the event of a disruption. A BCP or IT DR plan typically covers the following aspects12:
* Identification and prioritization of critical business functions and IT systems
* Assessment and mitigation of risks and threats to the organization
* Allocation and mobilization of resources and personnel
* Communication and coordination with internal and external stakeholders
* Testing and updating of the plan
Among the four examples of a response to external environmental factors, protocols for social media channels and PR communication are the least likely to be managed directly within the BCP or IT DR plan. This is because social media and PR communication are not critical business functions or IT systems that need to be restored or maintained during a disruption. They are rather supplementary tools that can be used to inform and engage with the public, customers, partners, and media about the organization's situation and actions3.
Therefore, protocols for social media and PR communication are more likely to be part of a crisis communication plan, which is a separate but related document that outlines the strategies and tactics for communicating with various audiences during a crisis.
The other three examples are more likely to be managed directly within the BCP or IT DR plan, as they directly affect the organization's ability to perform its critical business functions and IT systems. For instance, a response to a natural or man-made disruption would involve activating the BCP or IT DR plan, assessing the impact and extent of the damage, deploying backup and recovery solutions, and restoring normal operations as soon as possible. A response to a dependency on key employee or supplier issues would involve identifying and managing the single points of failure, implementing contingency plans, and ensuring the availability and redundancy of essential skills and resources. A response to a large scale illness or health outbreak would involve implementing health and safety measures, enabling remote work arrangements, and ensuring the resilience and continuity of the workforce. References:
* Business continuity vs. disaster recovery: Which plan is right ... - IBM
* Business Continuity vs Disaster Recovery: What's The Difference?
* Disaster recovery plan vs. business continuity plan: Is there a difference?
* [Crisis Communication Plan: A PR Blue Print by Sandra K. Clawson Freeo]
* [Disaster Recovery Planning (DRP) | Business Continuity Plan (BCP) | Disaster Recovery Journal]
* [Managing Third Party Risk in a Disrupted World]
* [Business Continuity Planning for a Pandemic]

質問 # 24
Which capability is LEAST likely to be included in the annual testing activities for Business Continuity or Disaster Recovery plans?

• A. Plans to enable technology and business operations to be resumed at a back-up site
• B. Require participation by third party service providers in collaboration with industry exercises
• C. Process to validate that specific databases can be accessed by applications at the designated location
• D. Ability for business personnel to perform their functions at an alternate work space location

正解：B

解説：
Business Continuity or Disaster Recovery (BC/DR) plans are designed to ensure the continuity of critical business functions and processes in the event of a disruption or disaster. BC/DR plans should include annual testing activities to validate the effectiveness and readiness of the plans, as well as to identify and address any gaps or weaknesses. Testing activities should cover the three main areas of BC/DR: people, processes, and technology12.
The four options given in the question represent different types of testing activities that may be included in the BC/DR plans. However, option D is the least likely to be included, as it is not a mandatory or common practice for most organizations. While it is beneficial to involve third party service providers in the BC/DR testing, as they may play a vital role in the recovery process, it is not a requirement or a standard for most industries. Third party service providers may have their own BC/DR plans and testing schedules, which may not align with the organization's plans and objectives. Moreover, requiring their participation in industry exercises may pose challenges in terms of coordination, confidentiality, and cost34.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it is the least likely to be included in the annual testing activities for BC/DR plans. The other options are more likely to be included, as they are essential for ensuring the availability and functionality of the technology, processes, and personnel that support the critical business operations. These options are:
* A. Plans to enable technology and business operations to be resumed at a back-up site. This is a common testing activity that involves simulating a disaster scenario that affects the primary site and activating the back-up site to resume the operations. This tests the technical infrastructure, data backup and recovery, and operational procedures of the BC/DR plan12.
* B. Process to validate that specific databases can be accessed by applications at the designated location.
This is a common testing activity that involves verifying that the data and applications that are critical for the business functions are accessible and functional at the recovery location. This tests the data integrity, security, and compatibility of the BC/DR plan12.
* C. Ability for business personnel to perform their functions at an alternate work space location. This is a common testing activity that involves relocating the key staff to an alternate location and having them perform their normal duties. This tests the communication, coordination, and productivity of the BC/DR plan12.
References:
* 1: How to Test a Business Continuity Disaster Recovery (BCDR) Plan
* 2: Business Continuity or Disaster Recovery Testing and Training Guidelines
* 3: Third Party Risk Management and Business Continuity Planning
* 4: Third Party Risk Management: Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery

質問 # 25
Data loss prevention in endpoint security is the strategy for:

• A. Preventing malware from entering secure systems used for processing confidential information
• B. Enabling high-availability to prevent data transactions from loss
• C. Assuring there are adequate data backups in the event of a disaster
• D. Preventing exfiltration of confidential information by users who access company systems

正解：D

解説：
According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, data loss prevention (DLP) is a strategy for preventing the unauthorized disclosure, transfer, or misuse of sensitive data, such as personally identifiable information (PII), personal health information (PHI), or intellectual property (IP)1. Endpoint security is a component of DLP that focuses on protecting the devices (such as laptops, tablets, or smartphones) that access and store sensitive data from internal or external threats2. Therefore, data loss prevention in endpoint security is the strategy for preventing exfiltration of confidential information by users who access company systems, as this could result in data breaches, regulatory fines, reputational damage, or competitive disadvantage3.
The other options are not the best descriptions of data loss prevention in endpoint security, as they either relate to different aspects of data protection or security, or do not address the specific goal of preventing data exfiltration. Data backups are a strategy for ensuring data recovery in the event of a disaster, but they do not prevent data loss or leakage from unauthorized access or transfer. High-availability is a strategy for ensuring data availability and continuity, but it does not prevent data loss or leakage from malicious or accidental actions. Malware prevention is a strategy for ensuring data integrity and confidentiality, but it does not prevent data loss or leakage from legitimate users who may misuse or overshare data.
References:
* 1: Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, page 25
* 2: What is Endpoint Security? | McAfee
* 3: What is data loss prevention (DLP)? | Microsoft Security
* [4]: Data Backup vs. Data Recovery: What's the Difference? | Carbonite
* [5]: What is High Availability? | IBM
* [6]: What is Malware? | Norton

質問 # 26
Which statement BEST represents the primary objective of a third party risk assessment:

• A. To determine the scope of the business relationship
• B. To validate that the vendor/service provider has adequate controls in place based on the organization's risk posture
• C. To assess the appropriateness of non-disclosure agreements regarding the organization's systems/data
• D. To evaluate the risk posture of all vendors/service providers in the vendor inventory

正解：B

解説：
The primary objective of a third party risk assessment is to validate that the vendor/service provider has adequate controls in place based on the organization's risk posture. A third party risk assessment (also known as supplier risk assessment) quantifies the risks associated with third-party vendors and suppliers that provide products or services to your organization1. This assessment is useful for analyzing both new and ongoing supplier relationships. The growing risk of supply chain attacks makes it critical to conduct thorough and regular risk assessments of your third parties. A third party risk assessment helps you identify, measure, and mitigate the potential risks that your third parties pose to your organization, such as data breaches, cyberattacks, compliance violations, operational disruptions, reputational damage, or financial losses. A third party risk assessment also helps you align your third party risk management (TPRM) program with your organization's risk appetite, policies, standards, and procedures. A third party risk assessment typically involves the following steps1:
* Scoping: Define the scope of the assessment based on the type, nature, and criticality of the third party relationship. Determine the relevant risk domains, such as security, privacy, compliance, business continuity, etc.
* Data collection: Gather information from the third party using various methods, such as questionnaires, surveys, interviews, audits, tests, or evidence reviews.
* Analysis: Analyze the data collected and compare it with your organization's risk criteria, benchmarks, and best practices. Identify any gaps, weaknesses, or issues in the third party's controls, processes, or performance.
* Reporting: Document the findings and recommendations of the assessment in a clear and concise report.
Communicate the results to the relevant stakeholders, such as senior management, business owners, or regulators.
* Remediation: Follow up with the third party to ensure that they implement the necessary actions to address the identified risks. Monitor and track the progress and effectiveness of the remediation plan.
* Review: Review and update the assessment periodically or whenever there are significant changes in the third party relationship, the risk environment, or the regulatory requirements.
The other statements are not the primary objective of a third party risk assessment, although they may be related or secondary objectives. Assessing the appropriateness of non-disclosure agreements regarding the organization's systems/data is a legal objective that may be part of the contract negotiation or review process.
Determining the scope of the business relationship is a strategic objective that may be part of the vendor selection or due diligence process. Evaluating the risk posture of all vendors/service providers in the vendor inventory is a holistic objective that may be part of the vendor risk management or governance process.
References:
* 1: Third-Party Risk Assessment: A Practical Guide - BlueVoyant
* : What Is Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM)? 2024 Guide | UpGuard
* : What is Third-Party Risk Management? | Blog | OneTrust

質問 # 27
Which statement BEST reflects the factors that help you determine the frequency of cyclical assessments?

• A. Vendor assessment frequency should be based on the level of risk and criticality of the vendor to your operations as determined by their vendor risk score
• B. Vendor assessment frequency may need to be changed if the vendor has disclosed a data breach
• C. Vendor assessments should be scheduled based on the type of services/products provided
• D. Vendor assessments should be conducted during onboarding and then be replaced by continuous monitoring

正解：A

解説：
The frequency of cyclical assessments is one of the key factors that determines the effectiveness and efficiency of a TPRM program. Cyclical assessments are periodic reviews of the vendor's performance, compliance, and risk posture that are conducted after the initial onboarding assessment. The frequency of cyclical assessments should be aligned with the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, and should reflect the level of risk and criticality of the vendor to the organization's operations. A common approach to determine the frequency of cyclical assessments is to use a vendor risk score, which is a numerical value that represents the vendor's inherent and residual risk based on various criteria, such as the type, scope, and complexity of the services or products provided, the vendor's security and privacy controls, the vendor's compliance with relevant regulations and standards, the vendor's past performance and incident history, and the vendor's business continuity and disaster recovery capabilities. The vendor risk score can be used to categorize the vendors into different risk tiers, such as high, medium, and low, and assign appropriate frequencies for cyclical assessments, such as annually, biannually, or quarterly. For example, a high-risk vendor may require an annual assessment, while a low-risk vendor may require a biannual or quarterly assessment. The vendor risk score and the frequency of cyclical assessments should be reviewed and updated regularly to account for any changes in the vendor's risk profile or the organization's risk appetite.
The other three statements do not best reflect the factors that help you determine the frequency of cyclical assessments, as they are either too rigid, too vague, or too reactive. Statement A implies that vendor assessments are only necessary during onboarding and can be replaced by continuous monitoring afterwards.
However, continuous monitoring alone is not sufficient to ensure the vendor's compliance and risk management, as it may not capture all the aspects of the vendor's performance and risk posture, such as contractual obligations, service level agreements, audit results, and remediation actions. Therefore, vendor assessments should be conducted during onboarding and at regular intervals thereafter, complemented by continuous monitoring. Statement C suggests that vendor assessments should be scheduled based on the type of services or products provided, without considering the other factors that may affect the vendor's risk level and criticality, such as the vendor's security and privacy controls, the vendor's compliance with relevant regulations and standards, the vendor's past performance and incident history, and the vendor's business continuity and disaster recovery capabilities. Therefore, statement C is too vague and does not provide a clear and consistent basis for determining the frequency of cyclical assessments. Statement D indicates that vendor assessment frequency may need to be changed if the vendor has disclosed a data breach, implying that the frequency of cyclical assessments is only adjusted in response to a negative event. However, this approach is too reactive and may not prevent or mitigate the impact of the data breach, as the vendor's risk level and criticality may have already increased before the data breach occurred. Therefore, statement D does not reflect a proactive and risk-based approach to determining the frequency of cyclical assessments. References:
* Third-Party Risk Management 101: Guiding Principles
* Mastering the TPRM Lifecycle
* Third Party Risk Management Maturity Assessment

質問 # 28
Which of the following topics is LEAST important when evaluating a service provider's Security and Privacy Awareness Program?

• A. Training on acceptable use and data safeguards based on organization's policies
• B. Training that is designed based on role, job scope, or level of access
• C. Training on phishing and social engineering risks and expected actions for employees and contractors
• D. Training on whistleblower compliance issue reporting mechanisms

正解：D

解説：
While whistleblower compliance issue reporting mechanisms are important for ensuring ethical conduct and accountability within an organization, they are not directly related to the security and privacy awareness of the service provider's employees and contractors. The other topics are more relevant for assessing the service provider's ability to protect the organization's sensitive data and systems from external and internal threats, such as phishing, social engineering, unauthorized access, data breaches, etc. Therefore, B is the least important topic when evaluating a service provider's Security and Privacy Awareness Program. References:
* Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, page 43, section 4.2.3: Security and Privacy Awareness Program
* Third-Party Security: 8 Steps To Assessing Risks And Protecting Your Ecosystem, step 4: Evaluate the vendor's security awareness and training program
* What Is Third-Party Risk Management, section: How to Implement a Third-Party Risk Management Program, bullet point: Security and privacy awareness training

質問 # 29
When defining third party requirements for transmitting Pll, which factors provide stranger controls?

• A. Strength of encryption cipher and authentication method
• B. Full disk encryption and backup
• C. Logging and monitoring
• D. Available bandwidth and redundancy

正解：A

解説：
Personally identifiable information (PII) is any data that can be used to identify, contact, or locate an individual, such as name, address, email, phone number, social security number, etc. PII is subject to various legal and regulatory requirements, such as the GDPR, HIPAA, PCI DSS, and others, depending on the industry and jurisdiction. PII also poses significant security and privacy risks, as it can be exploited by malicious actors for identity theft, fraud, phishing, or other cyberattacks. Therefore, organizations that collect, store, process, or transmit PII must implement appropriate safeguards to protect it from unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or loss.
One of the key safeguards for PII protection is encryption, which is the process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key. Encryption ensures that only authorized parties who have the key can access the original data. Encryption can be applied to data at rest (stored on a device or a server) or data in transit (moving across a network or the internet). Encryption can also be symmetric (using the same key for encryption and decryption) or asymmetric (using a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption).
Another key safeguard for PII protection is authentication, which is the process of verifying the identity of a user or a system that requests access to data. Authentication ensures that only legitimate and authorized parties can access the data. Authentication can be based on something the user knows (such as a password or a PIN), something the user has (such as a token or a smart card), something the user is (such as a fingerprint or a face scan), or a combination of these factors. Authentication can also be enhanced by using additional methods, such as one-time passwords, challenge-response questions, or multi-factor authentication.
When defining third party requirements for transmitting PII, the factors that provide stronger controls are the strength of encryption cipher and authentication method. These factors determine how secure and reliable the data transmission is, and how resistant it is to potential attacks or breaches. The strength of encryption cipher refers to the algorithm and the key size used to encrypt the data. The stronger the cipher, the more difficult it is to break or crack the encryption. The strength of authentication method refers to the type and the number of factors used to verify the identity of the user or the system. The stronger the authentication method, the more difficult it is to impersonate or compromise the user or the system.
The other factors, such as full disk encryption and backup, available bandwidth and redundancy, and logging and monitoring, are also important for PII protection, but they do not directly affect the data transmission process. Full disk encryption and backup are relevant for data at rest, not data in transit. They provide protection in case of device theft, loss, or damage, but they do not prevent data interception or modification during transmission. Available bandwidth and redundancy are relevant for data availability and performance, not data security and privacy. They ensure that the data transmission is fast and reliable, but they do not prevent data exposure or corruption during transmission. Logging and monitoring are relevant for data audit and compliance, not data encryption and authentication. They provide visibility and accountability for the data transmission activities, but they do not prevent data access or misuse during transmission. References:
* : What is Data Encryption? | Definition and Examples | Imperva
* : What is Authentication? | Definition and Examples | Imperva
* : Personally Identifiable Information (PII) - Imperva
* : Data Protection - Shared Assessments

質問 # 30
Which factor in patch management is MOST important when conducting postcybersecurity incident analysis related to systems and applications?

• A. Log retention
• B. Testing
• C. Approvals
• D. Configuration

正解：B

解説：
In patch management, testing is the most crucial factor when conducting post-cybersecurity incident analysis related to systems and applications. Proper testing of patches before deployment ensures that they effectively address vulnerabilities without introducing new issues or incompatibilities that could impact system functionality or security. Testing allows organizations to verify that the patch resolves the identified security issue without adversely affecting the system or application's performance. It also helps in identifying potential conflicts with existing configurations or dependencies. Effective testing strategies include regression testing, performance testing, and security testing to ensure comprehensive validation of the patch's effectiveness and safety before widespread deployment. This approach aligns with best practices in patch management, emphasizing the importance of thorough testing to mitigate the risk of unintended consequences and ensure the continued security and stability of systems and applications.
References:
* Industry standards such as ISO/IEC 27001 (Information Security Management) highlight the importance of a systematic approach to managing patches, including the role of testing in assessing the effectiveness and impact of patches.
* Resources like "Patch Management Best Practices" from the Center for Internet Security (CIS) provide guidance on developing and implementing a patch management program that includes rigorous testing procedures to ensure patches are safely and effectively applied.

質問 # 31
A contract clause that enables each party to share the amount of information security risk is known as:

• A. Force majeure
• B. Limitation of liability
• C. Mutual indemnification
• D. Cyber Insurance

正解：C

解説：
Indemnification is a contractual obligation by which one party agrees to compensate another party for any losses or damages that may arise from a specified event or circumstance. Mutual indemnification means that both parties agree to indemnify each other for certain losses or damages, such as those caused by a breach of contract, negligence, or violation of law. Mutual indemnification can enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, as it can provide a mechanism for allocating the responsibility and liability for any security incidents or breaches that may affect either party or their customers. Mutual indemnification can also incentivize each party to maintain adequate security controls and practices, as well as to cooperate and communicate effectively in the event of a security incident or breach.
The other options are not contract clauses that enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, because:
* A. Limitation of liability is a contract clause that limits the amount or type of damages that one party can claim from another party in the event of a breach of contract or other legal action. Limitation of liability does not enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, as it can reduce or cap the liability of one party, but not necessarily distribute or balance the risk between both parties.
* B. Cyber insurance is a type of insurance policy that covers the costs and losses resulting from cyberattacks, data breaches, or other cyber incidents. Cyber insurance does not enable each party to
* share the amount of information security risk, as it can transfer or mitigate the risk to a third-party insurer, but not necessarily allocate or share the risk between both parties.
* C. Force majeure is a contract clause that excuses one or both parties from performing their contractual obligations in the event of an unforeseen or unavoidable event or circumstance that is beyond their control, such as a natural disaster, war, or pandemic. Force majeure does not enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, as it can suspend or terminate the contract in the event of a force majeure event, but not necessarily distribute or balance the risk between both parties.
References:
* Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, page 62, section 5.2.2: Contractual Terms
* Third-Party Risk Management: Vendor Contract Terms and Conditions, section: Indemnification
* Cybersecurity risks from third party vendors: PwC, section: Contractual terms and conditions
* [Third-Party Risk Management: The 3rd Party Ecosystem: How to Manage the Risk While Keeping the Benefit], section: Contractual Terms and Conditions

質問 # 32
At which level of reporting are changes in TPRM program metrics rare and exceptional?

• A. Business unit
• B. Executive management
• C. Board of Directors
• D. Risk committee

正解：C

解説：
TPRM program metrics are the indicators that measure the performance, effectiveness, and maturity of the TPRM program. They help to monitor and communicate the progress, achievements, and challenges of the TPRM program to various stakeholders, such as business units, executive management, risk committees, and board of directors. However, the level of reporting and the frequency of changes in TPRM program metrics vary depending on the stakeholder's role, responsibility, and interest123:
* Business unit: This level of reporting is focused on the operational aspects of the TPRM program, such as the status of vendor assessments, remediation actions, issues, and incidents. The changes in TPRM program metrics at this level are frequent and granular, as they reflect the day-to-day activities and outcomes of the TPRM program.
* Executive management: This level of reporting is focused on the strategic aspects of the TPRM program, such as the alignment with the business objectives, the compliance with the regulatory requirements, the management of the key risks, and the optimization of the resources and costs. The changes in TPRM program metrics at this level are less frequent and more aggregated, as they reflect the overall direction and performance of the TPRM program.
* Risk committee: This level of reporting is focused on the oversight aspects of the TPRM program, such as the evaluation of the risk appetite, the review of the risk profile, the approval of the risk policies, and the escalation of the risk issues. The changes in TPRM program metrics at this level are occasional and more analytical, as they reflect the governance and assurance of the TPRM program.
* Board of Directors: This level of reporting is focused on the advisory aspects of the TPRM program, such as the endorsement of the risk strategy, the awareness of the risk trends, the guidance of the risk culture, and the support of the risk initiatives. The changes in TPRM program metrics at this level are rare and exceptional, as they reflect the high-level and long-term vision and value of the TPRM program.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. Board of Directors, as this is the level of reporting where changes in TPRM program metrics are rare and exceptional. References:
* 1: 15 KPIs & Metrics to Measure the Success of Your TPRM Program | UpGuard
* 2: Third-party risk management metrics: Best practices to enhance your ... | Diligent
* 3: TPRM Metrics - Telling Your Risk Story - Shared Assessments | Shared Assessments

質問 # 33
When working with third parties, which of the following requirements does not reflect a "Zero Trust" approach to access management?

• A. Implement device monitoring, continual inspection and monitoring of logs/traffic
• B. Utilizing a solution that allows direct access by third parties to the organization's network
• C. Require that all communication is secured regardless of network location
• D. Ensure that access is granted on a per session basis regardless of network location, user, or device

正解：B

解説：
A Zero Trust approach to access management is based on the principle of verifying every access request as if it originates from an open network, regardless of the source, destination, or context. This means that no implicit trust is granted based on network location, user identity, or device status. Instead, every access request is evaluated based on multiple factors, such as user credentials, device health, data sensitivity, and threat intelligence. A Zero Trust approach also requires that all communication is encrypted and protected, and that access is granted on a per session basis with the least privilege principle123.
Utilizing a solution that allows direct access by third parties to the organization's network does not reflect a Zero Trust approach, because it implies that the network perimeter is a reliable boundary for security and trust.
This assumption is risky, because it exposes the organization to potential breaches and attacks from compromised or malicious third parties, who may have access to sensitive data and resources without proper verification or protection. A Zero Trust approach would require that third parties use secure and isolated channels to access the organization's network, such as VPNs, proxies, or gateways, and that their access is monitored and controlled based on granular policies and conditions123. References:
* Zero Trust part 1: Identity and access management
* Zero Trust Model - Modern Security Architecture | Microsoft Security
* Zero Trust identity and access management development best practices ...

質問 # 34
Which statement is FALSE when describing the third party risk assessors' role when conducting a controls evaluation using an industry framework?

• A. The Assessor's role is to review compliance artifacts and identify potential control gaps based on evaluation of the presence of control attributes
• B. The Assessor's role is to conduct discovery and validate responses from the risk assessment questionnaire by testing or validating controls
• C. The Assessor's role is to provide an opinion on the effectiveness of controls conducted over a period of time in their report
• D. The Assessor's role is to conduct discovery with subject matter experts to understand the control environment

正解：C

解説：
According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, the third party risk assessor's role is to evaluate the design and operating effectiveness of the third party's controls based on an industry framework, such as ISO, NIST, COBIT, or COSO1. The assessor's role is not to provide an opinion on the effectiveness of controls, but rather to report the results of the evaluation in a factual and objective manner2. The assessor's role is also to conduct discovery with subject matter experts to understand the control environment, to conduct discovery and validate responses from the risk assessment questionnaire by testing or validating controls, and to review compliance artifacts and identify potential control gaps based on evaluation of the presence of control attributes1. These are all true statements that describe the assessor's role when conducting a controls evaluation using an industry framework.
References:
* 1: Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, page 29
* 2: What is a Third-Party Risk Assessment? - RiskOptics

質問 # 35
Which statement is FALSE regarding problem or issue management?

• A. Problem or issue management may reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents
• B. Problems or issues typically lead to systemic failures
• C. Problem or issue management involves managing workarounds or known errors
• D. Problems or issues are the root cause of an actual or potential incident

正解：B

解説：
In the context of Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM), problems or issues do not inherently lead to systemic failures but are indicative of underlying faults within processes or systems that could potentially result in incidents. Problem or issue management is a critical component of TPRM, focusing on identifying, classifying, and managing the root causes of incidents to prevent their recurrence and mitigate their impact.
Effective problem management involves not just managing workarounds or known errors, but also implementing permanent fixes to eliminate the root causes of problems. By addressing the underlying issues, organizations can enhance their operational resilience and reduce the likelihood and impact of future incidents.
This approach aligns with best practices in TPRM, emphasizing proactive risk identification, assessment, and mitigation to safeguard against potential disruptions in the supply chain and third-party ecosystems.
References:
* Best practices in TPRM suggest a structured approach to problem and issue management, including identification, assessment, prioritization, and resolution of root causes, as outlined in frameworks such as ISO 31000 (Risk Management) and NIST SP 800-53 (Security and Privacy Controls for Federal Information Systems and Organizations).
* Learning resources such as the "Third Party Risk Management Program Playbook" from Shared Assessments and the "Third-Party Risk Management Guide" from ISACA provide comprehensive guidelines on implementing effective problem and issue management processes within a TPRM program.

質問 # 36
An outsourcer's vendor risk assessment process includes all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Developing risk-tiered due diligence standards
• B. Defining assessment frequency based on resource capacity
• C. Setting remediation timelines based on the severity level of findings
• D. Establishing risk evaluation criteria based on company policy

正解：B

解説：
An outsourcer's vendor risk assessment process should include all the steps mentioned in options A, B, and C, as they are essential for ensuring a consistent, comprehensive, and effective evaluation of the vendor's performance, compliance, and risk profile. However, option D is not a necessary or recommended part of the vendor risk assessment process, as it does not reflect the actual level of risk posed by the vendor, but rather the availability of resources within the outsourcer's organization. Defining assessment frequency based on resource capacity could lead to under-assessing or over-assessing vendors, depending on the outsourcer's workload, budget, and staff. This could result in missing critical issues, wasting time and money, or creating gaps in the vendor oversight program. Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it is the only one that does not belong to the vendor risk assessment process. References: The following resources support the verified answer and explanation:
* Shared Assessments' CTPRP Job Guide, page 10, section 2.1.1, states that "The frequency of assessments should be based on the risk tier of the third party, not on the availability of resources."
* Guide to Vendor Risk Assessment, section "Step 3: Determine the Frequency of Vendor Risk Assessments", explains that "The frequency of vendor risk assessments should be based on the level of risk each vendor poses to your organization, not on the availability of resources or convenience."
* How to Conduct a Successful Vendor Risk Assessment in 9 Steps, section "Step 8: Determine the Frequency of Vendor Risk Assessments", advises that "The frequency of vendor risk assessments should be based on the level of risk each vendor poses to your organization, not on the availability of resources or convenience."

質問 # 37
Which statement is FALSE regarding the risk factors an organization may include when defining TPRM compliance requirements?

• A. Organizations define TPRM policies based on the company's risk appetite to shape requirements based on the services being outsourced
• B. Organizations include TPRM compliance requirements within vendor contracts, and periodically review and update mandatory contract provisions
• C. Organizations incorporate the use of external standards and frameworks to align and map TPRM compliance requirements to industry practice
• D. Organizations rely on regulatory mandates to define and structure TPRM compliance requirements

正解：D

解説：
TPRM compliance requirements are the rules and expectations that an organization must follow when engaging with third parties, such as vendors, suppliers, partners, or contractors. These requirements are derived from various sources, such as laws, regulations, standards, frameworks, contracts, policies, and best practices. However, relying solely on regulatory mandates to define and structure TPRM compliance requirements is a false statement, because123:
* Regulatory mandates are not the only source of TPRM compliance requirements. Organizations may also need to consider other factors, such as industry benchmarks, customer expectations, stakeholder interests, ethical principles, and social responsibility.
* Regulatory mandates are not always comprehensive, clear, or consistent. Organizations may face different or conflicting regulations across jurisdictions, sectors, or domains. Organizations may also need to interpret and apply the regulations to their specific context and risk profile, which may require additional guidance or expertise.
* Regulatory mandates are not always sufficient, effective, or efficient. Organizations may need to go beyond the minimum requirements of the regulations to achieve their business objectives, mitigate their risks, or enhance their performance. Organizations may also need to adopt more flexible, scalable, and innovative approaches to TPRM compliance, rather than following a rigid, one-size-fits-all, or check-the-box model.
Therefore, the correct answer is B. Organizations rely on regulatory mandates to define and structure TPRM compliance requirements, as this is a false statement regarding the risk factors an organization may include when defining TPRM compliance requirements. References:
* 1: Understanding TPRM Compliance: A Comprehensive Guide | Prevalent
* 2: What Is Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM)? 2024 Guide | UpGuard
* 3: Third-Party Risk Management and ISO Requirements for 2022 | Reciprocity

質問 # 38
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問題集で返金保証付きのCTPRP承認済み問題集：https://www.passtest.jp/Shared-Assessments/CTPRP-shiken.html

2024年最新のに更新された検証済みの合格させるCTPRP試験にはリアル問題解答：https://drive.google.com/open?id=1gz5huH2IU_jShDry4uZXSnzKRKxAT6E0